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Exam Code: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
Exam Name: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
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AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01 Practice Test 31

Question 300

A Step Functions orchestration calls a transient SageMaker API that sometimes returns throttling. Which state-machine control should be configured?

  1. Delete the state execution history before retrying.
  2. An appropriate Retry policy with bounded exponential backoff and a separate failure catch path.
  3. Loop indefinitely with no wait interval or retry cap.
  4. Treat every throttled call as successful without checking an outcome.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Managed retries can absorb transient throttling without disguising persistent failures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing history does not change retry behavior and hurts diagnosis.

C:

Unbounded tight retries increase load and can exhaust execution quotas.

D:

A throttled API request may not have performed the intended action.

Question 301

A model must retrain every Sunday using the latest approved input snapshot, even if no one opens a notebook. How should execution start?

  1. Schedule an EventBridge rule or EventBridge Scheduler invocation of the registered training workflow.
  2. Depend on a data scientist logging into the console each weekend.
  3. Trigger only when an inference request returns a 404 error.
  4. Configure inference endpoint autoscaling and assume it automatically schedules retraining.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Scheduled events can initiate a repeatable pipeline without manual notebooks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Manual action violates the unattended schedule requirement.

C:

Errors are not the specified weekly retraining cadence.

D:

Endpoint scaling manages serving capacity and does not initiate a weekly training workflow.

Question 302

An S3 object landing should start a validated preprocessing workflow, but duplicate event deliveries are possible. What should the event-driven design include?

  1. Assume S3 event notifications can never be duplicated.
  2. Train on the first event and discard later dataset versions unconditionally.
  3. Use the S3 object key alone as the idempotency key and disregard object version changes.
  4. Use an event notification or EventBridge trigger with an idempotency key tied to the dataset version.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Event-driven starts plus deduplication avoid duplicated work when notifications are delivered more than once.

Incorrect Answers

A:

At-least-once event behavior can produce repeated notifications.

B:

Dropping all later notifications unconditionally also discards genuinely new object versions, not just duplicate deliveries.

C:

Object keys can be reused for genuinely new versions, so key-only deduplication may discard real updates.

Question 303

A model-retraining automation watches input drift alerts. The team needs to avoid deploying a new model whose validation has deteriorated. What must remain between retraining and promotion?

  1. Disable validation once retraining was triggered by a monitor.
  2. Rename the model old to convince the pipeline it has passed.
  3. An explicit quality comparison and approval/rollback gate before deploying the candidate.
  4. Deploy the latest trained model immediately whenever any feature shifts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Drift-triggered training does not imply the new model is better or safe to deploy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A trigger does not replace independent candidate quality evidence.

B:

Version labels do not prove predictive or operational quality.

D:

Feature drift can generate weak candidates or false alarms.

Question 304

A business wants to collect candidate endpoint performance on production requests without returning its decisions to users before formal approval. Which pipeline stage should it add?

  1. A daily training-only metric report from unrelated data.
  2. A shadow deployment stage with collected serving telemetry and a reviewed promotion decision.
  3. An immediate 100% traffic cutover with no observed latency.
  4. A source-code formatting check as the only production test.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Shadow serving exercises the candidate safely while preserving existing customer responses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Offline historical scores cannot measure current request serving effects.

C:

Sending all user requests to the candidate would return unapproved predictions instead of collecting shadow performance evidence.

D:

A static code-format check cannot measure how the unapproved candidate responds to live workloads, so it does not provide the required shadow-test evidence.

Question 305

A rollout sends five percent of traffic to a new candidate and CloudWatch 5xx rates rise above a safety threshold. How should automated delivery respond?

  1. Abort the canary and restore the previous known-good variant according to rollback policy.
  2. Continue raising new-model traffic weight because more users improve confidence.
  3. Remove the alarm before increasing traffic again.
  4. Change the training dataset partition but leave the faulty endpoint deployed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A failed safety guardrail should stop exposure and return traffic to the healthy deployment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Increasing exposure amplifies failures against the guardrail.

C:

Silencing a true error does not improve service availability.

D:

Dataset arrangement does not immediately repair serving errors.

Question 306

CodeBuild must retrieve a private package from CodeArtifact when producing an inference container. What should the build environment use?

  1. Hardcode a personal access token permanently into the Dockerfile.
  2. Make all private packages anonymously public.
  3. Copy a developer's ~/.aws credentials into the build artifact.
  4. A scoped IAM build role and approved CodeArtifact repository authentication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Build roles can obtain temporary access tokens for controlled dependency downloads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Embedded credentials may be distributed to every consumer of the image.

B:

Public access violates the dependency confidentiality requirement.

C:

Personal credentials should not be packaged into shared images.

Question 307

A release pipeline's test stage discovers that the inference image produces invalid shape outputs. What must happen to downstream deployment stages?

  1. Deploy the faulty image anyway and fix it after customers complain.
  2. Change only the commit message without rebuilding.
  3. Stop or fail the pipeline execution and prevent promotion of that build artifact.
  4. Mark the test stage successful because the container started.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A failing interface contract is a release blocker until repaired and retested.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Known schema defects should not be promoted to production.

B:

Commit metadata does not repair model output dimensionality.

D:

Startup alone does not validate output shapes.

Question 308

A team must approve a new endpoint configuration differing only in one instance count. It wants a quick rollback to the exact earlier configuration if performance degrades. What should it retain?

  1. Record the release date but not the resource version.
  2. Version the previous endpoint configuration and model package identifiers as a deployable release artifact.
  3. Overwrite the earlier configuration object with the new one and discard its ID.
  4. Store just the approximate prior CPU utilization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An immutable rollback target allows the pipeline to restore the known-good serving setup.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A calendar date does not identify the exact previously approved endpoint configuration and replica settings needed for rollback.

C:

Without the old version, restoration becomes guesswork.

D:

Utilization cannot reconstruct resource and model configuration.

Question 309

A pipeline deploys to staging and production using different environment values. An operator accidentally uses staging account credentials in production. What separation should the delivery pipeline enforce?

  1. Distinct deployment roles and controlled account/region parameters per stage, with validation before promotion.
  2. One wildcard administrator role shared by all stages.
  3. Rely solely on stage names in human-readable comments.
  4. Disable audit logs so credential use cannot be confused.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Explicit role and environment boundaries prevent cross-account identity confusion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A shared powerful identity erodes the intended environment isolation.

C:

Comments do not constrain the AWS account or permissions used.

D:

Losing logs makes cross-stage access harder to investigate.

Question 310

A project uses Git branches for experiment code, but the model build must be reproducible after the branch advances. What source identifier should the pipeline capture?

  1. Only the floating branch name main.
  2. Only the repository URL without revision metadata.
  3. Only the timestamp when an analyst opened the console.
  4. The exact reviewed Git commit SHA together with dependency and build artifact versions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A commit SHA pins the source revision regardless of subsequent branch movement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Branch heads move and can identify different code later.

B:

A repo URL names the project, not an exact build state.

C:

Console access time does not identify source code bytes.

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