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Exam Code: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
Exam Name: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
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AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01 Practice Test 30

Question 290

An infrastructure rollout uses CDK to provision a SageMaker endpoint and its log group. A reviewer wants changes checked in CI before merging. Which pipeline step is appropriate?

  1. Skip all synthesis and deploy directly from unreviewed source.
  2. Assert that high model accuracy guarantees a valid infrastructure stack.
  3. Check only that CDK source code compiles, without synthesizing or inspecting changed infrastructure resources.
  4. Run CDK synthesis, type/template validation and a diff for the affected stack as part of the pull request checks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Automated IaC validation catches incompatible resource changes before provisioning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The deployment would lack an auditable generated-resource check.

B:

Model metrics cannot validate CDK resource definitions.

C:

Compilation alone cannot show which deployed resources, permissions and parameters the change will alter.

Question 291

A team commits model-serving code to Git, but production images are still rebuilt manually on individual laptops. What pipeline architecture gives each release traceability?

  1. Make production deploy directly from any unreviewed branch push without tests.
  2. Store only the model's final accuracy in a spreadsheet without the source commit.
  3. Trigger CodePipeline from a reviewed commit, build and test with CodeBuild, and promote the immutable artifact through approved stages.
  4. Ask each developer to upload a differently named local image manually.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A versioned CI flow ties source revision, build logs and deployable image to the same release.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Skipping review and validation increases release risk.

B:

A metric alone cannot reconstruct serving code or identify the deployed artifact.

D:

Manual builds from unspecified states cannot be reliably reproduced.

Question 292

A CodePipeline ML deployment stage receives artifacts from two branches and occasionally deploys a model manifest with the wrong container image. What should the pipeline preserve?

  1. Remove commit IDs from the manifest to simplify filenames.
  2. Pass a versioned build artifact manifest with exact model package and image digest through each stage.
  3. Select the most recently created image tag regardless of its originating build.
  4. Let each stage independently search S3 for an object named latest.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Immutable identities prevent stage-to-stage mixing of independently built models and images.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Losing version provenance increases the exact mismatch risk.

C:

Recency is not proof the image belongs to the approved model.

D:

Mutable lookups permit mismatched artifacts between pipeline stages.

Question 293

A containerized inference service passes unit tests but fails to deserialize production-style JSON requests. Which test belongs in CI before release?

  1. An integration test that invokes the packaged container with representative JSON schemas and checks responses.
  2. Verify only that the Dockerfile contains a FROM statement.
  3. Check solely that the training loss decreased.
  4. Validate only the OpenAPI schema file without sending a representative request to the packaged serving image.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

End-to-end serialization tests catch interface defects that unit-only tests miss.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Image syntax alone does not validate the request/response contract.

C:

Training fit says nothing about the serving API parser.

D:

A correct external schema cannot prove the built container's JSON parser and response contract operate as specified.

Question 294

A model image is produced in CodeBuild, but no one checks its bundled libraries for known critical vulnerabilities before promotion. Which automated gate is appropriate?

  1. Check only whether the model accuracy exceeds 0.8.
  2. Change the image's human-readable tag to secure.
  3. Delete the build logs rather than scan the artifact.
  4. Scan the ECR image or software bill of materials and block unresolved critical findings according to policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Image vulnerability findings can prevent known-risk dependencies from reaching deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Predictive quality does not assess container package vulnerabilities.

B:

Changing the image tag label neither scans the built dependencies nor remediates known critical CVEs inside the container.

C:

Removing evidence does not reduce exploitation risk.

Question 295

A release pipeline uses CodeDeploy to update a container service. The team wants the existing tasks restored if health checks fail on the candidate. What deployment configuration supports this?

  1. Disable load-balancer health checks to speed deployment.
  2. Use a data-quality crawler instead of a deployment health test.
  3. Blue/green traffic management with health checks and automatic rollback on failed deployment alarms.
  4. Terminate all original tasks before candidate health is known.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CodeDeploy can monitor replacement tasks and revert traffic when configured health criteria fail.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disabling health checks removes the signal CodeDeploy needs to detect unhealthy replacement tasks and roll back the release.

B:

Crawler schema checks do not verify the new service is answering requests.

D:

Destroying fallback capacity removes the safe rollback path.

Question 296

A SageMaker pipeline registration step must run only when evaluation RMSE is below 12.0. Which pipeline primitive enforces that conditional branch?

  1. Use model file size to infer RMSE.
  2. A ConditionStep that compares the evaluation property or report value against the approved threshold.
  3. Register all candidate packages and promise to check them eventually.
  4. Increase training epochs if the threshold was missed without re-evaluating the new model.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Conditional execution can skip registration for models that fail the stated quality gate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Artifact size is not the numeric evaluation metric.

C:

Unconditional registration does not implement the before-registration requirement.

D:

More training without a subsequent quality check is not a release gate.

Question 297

A trained model passed offline evaluation but company policy requires risk approval from a designated release manager. Which SageMaker construct enforces the approval state?

  1. Model Registry package approval states with a required manual approval workflow.
  2. An S3 object tag called release-manager on a model file.
  3. A higher training validation AUC without any governance decision.
  4. An always-true CloudWatch alarm during deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Model package versions can remain PendingManualApproval until an authorized decision promotes them.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A tag alone does not enforce model package approval semantics.

C:

Predictive quality cannot replace the mandated human authorization.

D:

A metric alarm does not identify the designated approver's decision.

Question 298

A continuous deployment pipeline must start when a specific model package version changes from PendingManualApproval to Approved. What event-driven integration can support this?

  1. Poll the number of objects in a training bucket and deploy the newest filename.
  2. Schedule deployment every five minutes regardless of model status.
  3. Increase the model endpoint worker count to cause an approval event.
  4. Route the appropriate Model Registry status-change event through EventBridge to the release workflow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An event rule can associate an approved model version with the downstream deployment trigger.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A bucket inventory is not a Model Registry approval event for the specific package version selected by the release policy.

B:

Time alone cannot enforce the authorization condition.

C:

Scaling resources does not change model package approval.

Question 299

A training pipeline has separate processing, training and evaluation jobs; evaluation sometimes reads the wrong training run's model. How should orchestration express dependencies?

  1. Delete execution IDs to make output paths shorter.
  2. Schedule evaluation before training and hope the model exists.
  3. Use explicit SageMaker Pipelines step dependencies and property references to upstream outputs from the same execution.
  4. Run each job independently with filenames chosen from memory.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A DAG with output references ties evaluation to the intended processing and training run.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting execution IDs makes it harder for evaluation to reference the model from the correct training run and increases provenance errors.

B:

A downstream step must wait for the correct upstream artifact.

D:

Choosing artifact filenames from memory without linking pipeline step outputs allows evaluation to read results from the wrong training execution.

Question 300

A Step Functions orchestration calls a transient SageMaker API that sometimes returns throttling. Which state-machine control should be configured?

  1. Delete the state execution history before retrying.
  2. An appropriate Retry policy with bounded exponential backoff and a separate failure catch path.
  3. Loop indefinitely with no wait interval or retry cap.
  4. Treat every throttled call as successful without checking an outcome.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Managed retries can absorb transient throttling without disguising persistent failures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing history does not change retry behavior and hurts diagnosis.

C:

Unbounded tight retries increase load and can exhaust execution quotas.

D:

A throttled API request may not have performed the intended action.

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