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Question 121
Which cloud migration strategy involves moving applications to the cloud with minimal changes to the existing architecture?
A) Refactor
B) Replatform
C) Rehost
D) Rebuild
Answer: C
Explanation:
Rehosting, commonly known as lift-and-shift migration, involves moving applications from on-premises infrastructure to the cloud with minimal or no modifications to the application architecture, code, or features. This strategy focuses on quickly migrating workloads by essentially copying virtual machines or applications to cloud infrastructure while maintaining the same operating system, application stack, and configuration.
The primary advantage of rehosting is speed and simplicity, allowing organizations to realize immediate benefits such as reduced datacenter costs, improved disaster recovery capabilities, and access to cloud scalability without extensive application redesign. However, rehosted applications may not take full advantage of cloud-native features and optimizations.
Option A is incorrect because refactoring involves restructuring and optimizing application code to leverage cloud-native features such as serverless computing, managed services, and microservices architectures, requiring significant development effort and code changes.
Option B is incorrect because replatforming, also known as lift-tinker-and-shift, involves making some cloud optimizations during migration such as switching to managed databases or updating middleware while keeping the core application architecture largely unchanged, representing a middle ground between rehosting and refactoring.
Option D is incorrect because rebuilding involves completely redesigning and rewriting applications from scratch using cloud-native architectures and services, representing the most time-intensive and costly migration approach but offering maximum cloud optimization benefits.
Rehosting is often chosen for legacy applications or when organizations need to migrate quickly under time constraints.
Question 122
What is the primary function of a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)?
A) To provide load balancing services
B) To enforce security policies and provide visibility between cloud users and cloud applications
C) To manage virtual machine provisioning
D) To optimize storage performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud Access Security Brokers act as intermediaries between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers, enforcing enterprise security policies, providing visibility into cloud usage, and protecting data across multiple cloud services. CASBs address security gaps in cloud adoption by monitoring activity, detecting threats, enforcing compliance requirements, and preventing data breaches.
CASBs typically provide four core security pillars: visibility into cloud application usage and shadow IT, data security through encryption and tokenization, threat protection against malware and anomalous behavior, and compliance enforcement for regulatory requirements. They can be deployed as proxies, API-based connectors, or hybrid solutions depending on organizational needs.
Option A is incorrect because providing load balancing services involves distributing traffic across multiple servers for availability and performance, which is the function of load balancers rather than security brokers focused on policy enforcement and visibility.
Option C is incorrect because managing virtual machine provisioning is handled by infrastructure as code tools, orchestration platforms, and cloud management consoles rather than security brokers that focus on access control and data protection.
Option D is incorrect because optimizing storage performance involves selecting appropriate storage tiers, implementing caching strategies, and configuring storage systems for throughput and latency requirements, which is unrelated to the security policy enforcement functions of CASBs.
Organizations use CASBs to extend their security policies and controls to cloud environments and SaaS applications.
Question 123
Which cloud monitoring metric is most critical for identifying potential memory leaks in applications?
A) Network throughput
B) Disk IOPS
C) Memory utilization over time
D) CPU temperature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Memory utilization over time is the most critical metric for identifying potential memory leaks, which occur when applications fail to release allocated memory after it is no longer needed. Monitoring memory consumption patterns reveals steadily increasing memory usage that does not decrease during normal operation, indicating that memory is being allocated but not properly deallocated.
A memory leak manifests as gradually increasing memory utilization that eventually leads to application degradation, system instability, or crashes when available memory is exhausted. By tracking memory metrics over extended periods and correlating them with application behavior, administrators can identify problematic applications or code sections that require debugging and optimization.
Option A is incorrect because network throughput measures the amount of data transferred over network connections and indicates network performance or bandwidth utilization issues rather than memory management problems within applications.
Option B is incorrect because disk IOPS measures input/output operations per second for storage devices, indicating storage performance and bottlenecks rather than memory allocation issues that characterize memory leaks in application code.
Option D is incorrect because CPU temperature is a hardware metric relevant for physical server monitoring and thermal management but does not provide information about application memory management or leak detection in virtualized cloud environments.
Proactive memory monitoring combined with alerting helps prevent application failures and service disruptions caused by memory leaks.
Question 124
What is the primary benefit of implementing immutable infrastructure in cloud deployments?
A) Reduced storage costs
B) Increased consistency and reduced configuration drift
C) Faster network connectivity
D) Enhanced user authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Immutable infrastructure is an approach where servers and infrastructure components are never modified after deployment. Instead of updating or patching running systems, new versions are deployed to replace existing infrastructure entirely. This practice increases consistency across environments, eliminates configuration drift, and simplifies rollback procedures when issues occur.
With immutable infrastructure, servers become disposable and identical replicas that can be easily recreated from code. This approach reduces the complexity of managing server states, prevents the accumulation of undocumented changes over time, and ensures that all environments remain consistent. When updates are needed, new infrastructure is provisioned with the changes while old infrastructure is decommissioned.
Option A is incorrect because immutable infrastructure does not inherently reduce storage costs. In fact, it may temporarily increase resource usage during deployments when both old and new infrastructure coexist before the old version is terminated.
Option C is incorrect because network connectivity speed depends on network infrastructure, bandwidth allocation, routing optimization, and geographic proximity to resources rather than whether infrastructure components are mutable or immutable.
Option D is incorrect because user authentication is handled by identity and access management systems, authentication protocols, and directory services rather than infrastructure deployment methodologies that focus on server management approaches.
Immutable infrastructure aligns well with containerization, infrastructure as code, and continuous deployment practices in modern cloud environments.
Question 125
Which cloud service provides managed Kubernetes orchestration without requiring users to manage control plane components?
A) Virtual Machine service
B) Managed Kubernetes Service (such as EKS, AKS, or GKE)
C) Object Storage service
D) Content Delivery Network
Answer: B
Explanation:
Managed Kubernetes Services such as Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service, Azure Kubernetes Service, or Google Kubernetes Engine provide fully managed Kubernetes orchestration where the cloud provider handles control plane management, upgrades, patching, and high availability. Users can focus on deploying and managing their containerized applications without the operational overhead of maintaining Kubernetes infrastructure.
These services automate complex tasks such as etcd backups, master node provisioning, API server management, and control plane scaling. Organizations benefit from enterprise-grade Kubernetes environments with integrated logging, monitoring, security features, and seamless integration with other cloud services while only managing worker nodes and deployed applications.
Option A is incorrect because Virtual Machine services provide infrastructure for running traditional virtual servers with full operating system control but do not offer container orchestration or Kubernetes management capabilities.
Option C is incorrect because Object Storage services provide scalable storage for unstructured data such as images, videos, and backups using HTTP-based APIs, but they do not orchestrate containers or manage Kubernetes clusters.
Option D is incorrect because Content Delivery Networks cache and distribute content from edge locations to reduce latency for end users, serving static assets efficiently but not providing container orchestration or Kubernetes management functionality.
Managed Kubernetes services have become essential for organizations adopting containerized microservices architectures at scale.
Question 126
What is the primary purpose of implementing chaos engineering in cloud environments?
A) To reduce cloud costs
B) To proactively identify system weaknesses by intentionally introducing failures
C) To improve user interface design
D) To encrypt data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Chaos engineering is a discipline that involves intentionally introducing failures and disruptions into systems to proactively identify weaknesses, validate resilience mechanisms, and improve overall system reliability before real incidents occur. This practice helps organizations build confidence in their ability to withstand turbulent conditions in production environments.
By systematically experimenting with controlled failures such as terminating instances, injecting network latency, or simulating service outages, teams can discover hidden dependencies, verify failover mechanisms, test auto-scaling responses, and validate disaster recovery procedures. The insights gained from chaos experiments enable teams to strengthen system architecture and implement more robust error handling.
Option A is incorrect because reducing cloud costs involves right-sizing resources, implementing reserved instances, optimizing storage tiers, and eliminating unused resources rather than introducing failures to test system resilience and reliability.
Option C is incorrect because improving user interface design focuses on user experience, visual aesthetics, accessibility, and interaction patterns rather than testing system resilience through controlled failure injection experiments.
Option D is incorrect because encrypting data at rest involves implementing cryptographic protections for stored data using encryption keys and key management systems, which is a security practice unrelated to resilience testing through chaos engineering.
Popular chaos engineering tools include Netflix’s Chaos Monkey, Gremlin, and AWS Fault Injection Simulator for conducting controlled experiments.
Question 127
Which cloud computing concept describes the ability to provide different levels of service based on customer requirements?
A) Multi-tenancy
B) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C) Quality of Service (QoS)
D) Resource pooling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Quality of Service refers to the ability to provide different priority levels, performance characteristics, and resource guarantees to different classes of traffic, applications, or customers based on their specific requirements. QoS mechanisms ensure that critical applications receive necessary resources while less important traffic receives lower priority during resource contention.
In cloud environments, QoS controls bandwidth allocation, processing priority, storage IOPS, and latency characteristics to meet varying service requirements. Cloud providers implement QoS through traffic shaping, prioritization policies, guaranteed throughput levels, and dedicated resource allocation to ensure performance commitments are met for different service tiers.
Option A is incorrect because multi-tenancy refers to the architectural approach where a single instance of software serves multiple customers or tenants, with data and configuration isolated between them, rather than providing differentiated service levels.
Option B is incorrect because Service Level Agreements are formal contracts that define expected service availability, performance metrics, and remedies for non-compliance, but they represent the agreement itself rather than the technical mechanisms for delivering differentiated service levels.
Option D is incorrect because resource pooling describes the cloud provider’s practice of serving multiple customers using shared physical and virtual resources that are dynamically allocated according to demand, rather than differentiating service quality levels.
QoS implementations help cloud providers offer tiered service options such as standard, premium, and enterprise levels with corresponding performance guarantees.
Question 128
What is the primary function of a cloud bastion host?
A) To store backup data
B) To provide a secure gateway for accessing resources in private networks
C) To load balance web traffic
D) To monitor application performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
A bastion host, also known as a jump box or jump server, serves as a secure gateway for accessing resources within private networks or isolated cloud environments. Administrators connect to the bastion host first, which resides in a public subnet with restricted access controls, and then use it to access resources in private subnets that are not directly accessible from the internet.
Bastion hosts are hardened systems with minimal software installed, comprehensive logging enabled, and strict security controls implemented. They typically support SSH for Linux systems or RDP for Windows environments, with multi-factor authentication required and all sessions logged for security auditing. This architecture limits attack surface by providing a single, heavily monitored entry point.
Option A is incorrect because storing backup data is the function of backup services and storage systems designed for data protection, retention, and recovery rather than providing secure administrative access to private network resources.
Option C is incorrect because load balancing web traffic involves distributing incoming requests across multiple servers to optimize resource utilization and availability, which is the role of load balancers rather than secure access gateways.
Option D is incorrect because monitoring application performance is accomplished through observability platforms, application performance management tools, and monitoring services that collect metrics, traces, and logs rather than providing secure access pathways.
Modern alternatives to bastion hosts include cloud provider session manager services that provide browser-based access without requiring public IPs.
Question 129
Which cloud security practice involves regularly testing backup restoration procedures to ensure data recoverability?
A) Penetration testing
B) Disaster recovery testing
C) Vulnerability scanning
D) Configuration auditing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disaster recovery testing involves regularly validating that backup and recovery procedures work as expected by performing actual restoration tests in controlled environments. This practice ensures that backups are complete, accessible, and restorable within required recovery time objectives, identifying potential issues before actual disasters occur.
Comprehensive disaster recovery testing includes verifying backup integrity, testing restoration procedures, validating failover mechanisms, confirming data consistency after recovery, and ensuring that documented procedures are accurate and current. Organizations should conduct these tests periodically using different scenarios such as partial failures, complete site outages, and data corruption events.
Option A is incorrect because penetration testing involves simulating cyberattacks to identify security vulnerabilities in systems, applications, and networks rather than validating backup restoration capabilities and disaster recovery procedures.
Option C is incorrect because vulnerability scanning uses automated tools to identify known security weaknesses, misconfigurations, and missing patches in systems and applications rather than testing the ability to recover data from backups.
Option D is incorrect because configuration auditing involves reviewing system configurations against security baselines and compliance requirements to identify deviations and ensure proper settings rather than validating backup and recovery capabilities.
Effective disaster recovery testing prevents the scenario where organizations discover their backups are unusable only during actual emergency situations.
Question 130
What is the primary advantage of using serverless computing for event-driven workloads?
A) Unlimited storage capacity
B) Automatic scaling and pay-per-execution pricing model
C) Faster network speeds
D) Enhanced data encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Serverless computing provides automatic scaling that responds instantly to incoming events and a pay-per-execution pricing model where customers only pay for actual compute time consumed during function execution. This eliminates the need to provision, manage, or pay for idle infrastructure, making serverless ideal for event-driven workloads with variable or unpredictable traffic patterns.
Functions scale automatically from zero to thousands of concurrent executions based on demand, with the cloud provider handling all infrastructure management, patching, and availability concerns. The pricing model charges only for execution time measured in milliseconds, memory allocated, and number of invocations, resulting in significant cost savings for workloads that are intermittent or bursty.
Option A is incorrect because unlimited storage capacity is not a characteristic of serverless computing. Storage limitations exist and are managed through separate cloud storage services that integrate with serverless functions.
Option C is incorrect because network speed depends on network infrastructure, bandwidth allocation, and connectivity between services rather than the serverless execution model, though serverless functions benefit from cloud provider network infrastructure.
Option D is incorrect because data encryption capabilities are security features implemented through encryption services, key management, and secure coding practices rather than inherent advantages of the serverless execution model itself.
Common serverless platforms include AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions for executing code without server management.
Question 131
Which cloud backup strategy involves maintaining three copies of data on two different media types with one copy stored offsite?
A) RAID configuration
B) Snapshot replication
C) 3-2-1 backup rule
D) Incremental backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 3-2-1 backup rule is a widely recognized best practice that recommends maintaining three total copies of data, stored on two different media types, with one copy kept offsite. This strategy provides comprehensive protection against various failure scenarios including hardware failures, natural disasters, theft, and ransomware attacks.
The three copies include the original production data plus two backups. The two different media types might include disk and tape, or disk and cloud storage, ensuring that a single media failure or vulnerability does not affect all copies. The offsite copy protects against site-level disasters such as fires, floods, or other catastrophic events that could destroy locally stored backups.
Option A is incorrect because RAID configurations provide data redundancy and performance improvements at the disk level within a single system but do not protect against site-level disasters, logical corruption, or deletion since all disks are typically in the same location.
Option B is incorrect because snapshot replication creates point-in-time copies of data and may replicate them to other locations, but it does not specifically define the comprehensive backup strategy encompassing multiple copies, media types, and offsite storage.
Option D is incorrect because incremental backup is a backup method that captures only changes since the last backup, reducing backup time and storage requirements, but it describes a backup technique rather than a comprehensive backup strategy framework.
The 3-2-1 rule remains relevant in cloud environments, with cloud storage often serving as the offsite component.
Question 132
What is the primary purpose of implementing a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in cloud environments?
A) To encrypt data at rest
B) To protect web applications from common exploits and vulnerabilities
C) To improve database query performance
D) To manage user authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web Application Firewalls protect web applications from common exploits and vulnerabilities by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between web applications and the internet. WAFs defend against attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, cross-site request forgery, and other OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities that target application layer weaknesses.
WAFs operate at Layer 7 of the OSI model, analyzing HTTP requests and responses based on predefined security rules, custom policies, and behavioral analysis. They can block malicious traffic, rate limit requests, validate input data, and provide virtual patching for known vulnerabilities while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Cloud-based WAFs offer advantages including automatic rule updates, DDoS protection, and global deployment.
Option A is incorrect because encrypting data at rest involves using encryption services and key management to protect stored data, which is a data security measure separate from protecting web applications against runtime exploits and attacks.
Option C is incorrect because improving database query performance requires query optimization, proper indexing, caching strategies, and database tuning rather than web application firewall protection that focuses on security.
Option D is incorrect because managing user authentication involves identity and access management systems, authentication protocols such as OAuth or SAML, and directory services rather than web application firewalls that protect against application-layer attacks.
Popular cloud WAF services include AWS WAF, Azure Web Application Firewall, and Cloudflare WAF for protecting web applications.
Question 133
Which cloud cost optimization technique involves purchasing compute capacity in advance for a discounted rate?
A) Spot instances
B) Reserved instances
C) Auto-scaling
D) Load balancing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reserved instances involve purchasing committed compute capacity for a specified term, typically one or three years, in exchange for significant discounts compared to on-demand pricing. This cost optimization technique is ideal for workloads with predictable, steady-state usage patterns where long-term capacity needs are known in advance.
Reserved instances can provide discounts ranging from 30 to 75 percent compared to on-demand pricing depending on the commitment term, payment option, and instance specifications. Organizations can choose between all-upfront, partial-upfront, or no-upfront payment options with varying discount levels. Some cloud providers also offer convertible reserved instances that allow modifications to instance families or attributes.
Option A is incorrect because spot instances provide access to unused cloud capacity at heavily discounted rates but without guaranteed availability, as they can be reclaimed by the provider with short notice when demand increases, making them suitable for fault-tolerant workloads.
Option C is incorrect because auto-scaling automatically adjusts compute resources based on demand to optimize performance and costs, but it represents a dynamic resource management technique rather than a purchasing commitment for discounted rates.
Option D is incorrect because load balancing distributes traffic across multiple instances to improve availability and performance but does not provide cost discounts through advance capacity commitments or alternative pricing models.
Effective use of reserved instances requires capacity planning and workload analysis to maximize savings without overcommitting resources.
Question 134
What is the primary function of a service mesh in microservices architectures?
A) To provide data storage
B) To manage service-to-service communication, security, and observability
C) To encrypt data at rest
D) To provision virtual machines
Answer: B
Explanation:
A service mesh is an infrastructure layer that manages service-to-service communication in microservices architectures, providing features such as traffic management, security, observability, and resilience without requiring changes to application code. Service meshes use sidecar proxies deployed alongside each service to intercept and manage network traffic between services.
Service meshes provide capabilities including load balancing, circuit breaking, retry logic, timeouts, mutual TLS encryption for inter-service communication, detailed telemetry collection, distributed tracing, and traffic routing controls. Popular service mesh implementations include Istio, Linkerd, and Consul Connect, which integrate with container orchestration platforms like Kubernetes.
Option A is incorrect because providing data storage is the function of storage services, databases, and file systems rather than service meshes that focus on networking, communication, and observability between distributed application components.
Option C is incorrect because encrypting data at rest protects stored data using encryption services and key management, which is separate from service mesh functionality that focuses on securing communications between running services through transport layer encryption.
Option D is incorrect because provisioning virtual machines is handled by infrastructure as code tools, cloud management platforms, and compute services rather than service meshes that operate at the application networking layer.
Service meshes simplify complex networking challenges in cloud-native applications with hundreds or thousands of microservices requiring secure, reliable communication.
Question 135
Which cloud deployment scenario describes running containerized applications without managing the underlying server infrastructure?
A) Virtual machines with manual configuration
B) Bare metal servers
C) Container orchestration platform or serverless containers
D) Traditional hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Container orchestration platforms and serverless container services enable running containerized applications without managing underlying server infrastructure. Managed Kubernetes services and serverless container platforms such as AWS Fargate, Azure Container Instances, or Google Cloud Run abstract away infrastructure management while providing container runtime environments.
These services automatically handle server provisioning, scaling, patching, and infrastructure maintenance, allowing developers to focus on application development and deployment. Users specify container images, resource requirements, and scaling policies while the platform manages all operational aspects including cluster capacity, node health, and container placement.
Option A is incorrect because virtual machines with manual configuration require users to manage operating systems, patch management, capacity planning, and infrastructure maintenance, providing less abstraction than container orchestration platforms.
Option B is incorrect because bare metal servers provide direct access to physical hardware without virtualization, requiring complete infrastructure management including hardware maintenance, operating system management, and all administrative tasks.
Option D is incorrect because traditional hosting typically involves managing physical or virtual servers with manual provisioning, configuration, and maintenance responsibilities, lacking the automation and abstraction provided by modern container platforms.
Serverless container services represent the highest level of abstraction for running containerized workloads in cloud environments.
Question 136
What is the primary purpose of implementing data lifecycle management policies in cloud storage?
A) To improve network security
B) To automatically transition data between storage tiers based on access patterns and age
C) To increase CPU performance
D) To manage user permissions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data lifecycle management policies automatically transition data between different storage tiers based on predefined rules considering factors such as data age, access patterns, and business requirements. These policies optimize storage costs by moving infrequently accessed data to lower-cost storage tiers while maintaining frequently accessed data in high-performance tiers.
Lifecycle policies can automatically transition data from hot storage to cool storage after a specified period, archive data that hasn’t been accessed for months, or delete data that has exceeded retention requirements. This automation eliminates manual storage management tasks and ensures optimal cost-performance balance throughout the data lifecycle.
Option A is incorrect because improving network security involves implementing firewalls, encryption, access controls, and security monitoring rather than managing data storage tier transitions based on usage patterns and retention requirements.
Option C is incorrect because increasing CPU performance requires selecting appropriate compute instance types, optimizing application code, or scaling compute resources rather than managing how data is stored across different storage tiers.
Option D is incorrect because managing user permissions involves identity and access management systems, role-based access controls, and policy configurations that control who can access resources rather than automating data storage tier transitions.
Effective lifecycle management significantly reduces storage costs for organizations with large volumes of data with varying access requirements.
Question 137
Which cloud security principle states that users should only have the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions?
A) Defense in depth
B) Separation of duties
C) Least privilege
D) Zero trust
Answer: C
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege states that users, applications, and systems should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their required functions, reducing security risks by limiting potential damage from compromised accounts or insider threats. This security fundamental minimizes attack surface and limits the scope of potential security breaches.
Implementing least privilege involves carefully analyzing job functions, granting specific permissions rather than broad administrative access, regularly reviewing and adjusting permissions, and using just-in-time access for privileged operations. Cloud environments facilitate least privilege through fine-grained IAM policies, role-based access controls, and temporary credential mechanisms.
Option A is incorrect because defense in depth involves implementing multiple layers of security controls throughout an environment so that if one control fails, others remain to protect resources, representing a layered security approach rather than access minimization.
Option B is incorrect because separation of duties divides critical functions among multiple people to prevent fraud or errors, ensuring no single individual has complete control over sensitive processes, which is related but distinct from minimum permission assignment.
Option D is incorrect because zero trust is a security model that assumes no implicit trust regardless of network location, requiring continuous verification of users, devices, and applications, representing a broader security philosophy than simply minimizing permissions.
Least privilege implementation is fundamental to cloud security best practices and compliance with security frameworks.
Question 138
What is the primary benefit of implementing blue-green deployment strategies in cloud environments?
A) Reduced storage costs
B) Zero-downtime deployments and quick rollback capability
C) Improved data encryption
D) Enhanced user authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Blue-green deployment is a release management strategy that maintains two identical production environments, with one serving live traffic while the other receives the new deployment. This approach enables zero-downtime deployments and provides instant rollback capability if issues are discovered after deployment by simply switching traffic back to the previous environment.
The deployment process involves deploying the new version to the idle environment, performing validation and testing, then switching traffic from the current production environment to the newly updated environment. If problems occur, traffic can be immediately redirected back to the previous version without requiring lengthy rollback procedures or emergency fixes.
Option A is incorrect because blue-green deployments actually increase resource costs temporarily since two complete production environments must run simultaneously during deployments, though this cost is typically acceptable for the deployment safety benefits provided.
Option C is incorrect because data encryption improvements involve implementing stronger cryptographic algorithms, proper key management practices, and encryption protocols rather than deployment strategies that focus on release management and minimizing deployment risks.
Option D is incorrect because enhanced user authentication involves implementing multi-factor authentication, stronger authentication protocols, and improved identity verification methods rather than deployment strategies focused on application release management.
Blue-green deployments are particularly valuable for critical applications where downtime is unacceptable and quick rollback capability is essential.
Question 139
Which cloud monitoring approach involves collecting and analyzing logs, metrics, and traces to understand system behavior?
A) Load balancing
B) Data replication
C) Observability
D) Network segmentation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Observability is a comprehensive monitoring approach that involves collecting and analyzing three pillars of telemetry data: logs, metrics, and distributed traces. This approach enables teams to understand system behavior, troubleshoot issues, identify performance bottlenecks, and gain insights into complex distributed applications running in cloud environments.
Observability goes beyond traditional monitoring by providing the ability to understand internal system states based on external outputs. Logs provide detailed event records, metrics offer quantitative measurements over time, and traces show request paths through distributed systems. Together, these data types enable teams to ask arbitrary questions about system behavior without predefined dashboards.
Option A is incorrect because load balancing distributes traffic across multiple servers to optimize resource utilization and availability but does not involve comprehensive data collection and analysis for understanding system behavior.
Option B is incorrect because data replication involves copying data across multiple locations for redundancy, availability, and disaster recovery purposes rather than collecting and analyzing telemetry data for system insights.
Option D is incorrect because network segmentation divides networks into isolated segments to improve security and control traffic flow but does not involve collecting logs, metrics, and traces for system behavior analysis.
Modern observability platforms include tools like Prometheus, Grafana, Jaeger, and cloud provider native services for comprehensive monitoring capabilities.
Question 140
What is the primary purpose of implementing API gateways in cloud architectures?
A) To provide physical server hosting
B) To manage, secure, and route API requests to backend services
C) To store database backups
D) To encrypt data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation:
API gateways serve as centralized entry points that manage, secure, and route API requests to appropriate backend services in cloud architectures. They provide essential functionality including request routing, protocol translation, authentication and authorization, rate limiting, request/response transformation, caching, and API versioning.
API gateways decouple client applications from backend service implementations, enabling microservices architectures where multiple services collaborate to fulfill requests. They enforce security policies, aggregate responses from multiple services, handle cross-cutting concerns such as logging and monitoring, and provide a consistent interface for API consumers regardless of backend service changes.
Option A is incorrect because providing physical server hosting involves datacenter infrastructure, hardware management, and server provisioning rather than managing API traffic and requests between clients and services.
Option C is incorrect because storing database backups is accomplished through backup services, snapshot mechanisms, and data protection systems rather than API gateway functionality that focuses on request management and routing.
Option D is incorrect because encrypting data at rest protects stored data using encryption services and key management systems, which is separate from API gateway functionality that operates on data in transit and request/response processing.
Popular API gateway services include AWS API Gateway, Azure API Management, and Google Cloud API Gateway for building scalable API infrastructures.
