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Question 21:
Which practice has a purpose that includes restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible?
A) Service request management
B) Incident management
C) Problem management
D) Change enablement
Answer: B) Incident management
Explanation:
The incident management practice has a purpose that specifically includes restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible. This practice is triggered when there is an unplanned interruption to a service or a reduction in the quality of a service. The primary focus is on speed of restoration rather than on identifying and fixing the underlying cause, which is handled by problem management.
Incident management aims to minimize the negative impact that incidents have on business operations and users. This is achieved through efficient processes for detecting, logging, categorizing, prioritizing, diagnosing, and resolving incidents. The practice emphasizes the importance of restoring service within agreed timeframes to maintain business productivity and user satisfaction. Quick restoration often involves implementing workarounds rather than permanent fixes.
Option A is incorrect because service request management handles pre-defined user requests for services, not unplanned interruptions requiring restoration. Service requests are typically standard changes that do not require emergency restoration. Option C is incorrect because problem management focuses on preventing incidents and reducing their likelihood and impact by identifying root causes, rather than quickly restoring service. Option D is incorrect because change enablement focuses on maximizing successful changes while managing risk, not on restoring service operation.
Effective incident management requires clear procedures, appropriate tools for tracking and communication, skilled staff who can diagnose issues, and good integration with other practices. The practice benefits from maintaining a knowledge base of previous incidents and their solutions, which can accelerate resolution of similar future incidents.
Question 22:
Which value chain activity ensures continual improvement of products, services, and practices?
A) Plan
B) Improve
C) Design and transition
D) Deliver and support
Answer: B) Improve
Explanation:
The improve value chain activity ensures continual improvement of products, services, and practices across all value chain activities and the four dimensions of service management. This activity is specifically dedicated to driving ongoing enhancement and ensuring that the organization continually increases its effectiveness, efficiency, and ability to deliver value. It embeds improvement into the fabric of how the organization operates.
The improve activity works by identifying opportunities for improvement, assessing current performance, determining what should be improved and how, implementing improvements, and measuring results. It applies to all aspects of service management including services themselves, practices, value streams, and the overall service value system. This activity ensures that improvement is systematic and sustained rather than sporadic or reactive.
Option A is incorrect because the plan activity focuses on creating a shared understanding of vision, status, and direction for all products and services, not specifically on continual improvement. While planning may include improvement objectives, it is not dedicated to improvement. Option C is incorrect because design and transition focuses on ensuring that products and services meet stakeholder expectations for quality, cost, and time to market. Option D is incorrect because deliver and support focuses on ensuring services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications.
The improve activity works in conjunction with all other value chain activities to ensure that improvement is not isolated but integrated throughout the organization. It draws on various improvement methodologies and techniques and should be aligned with organizational strategy and objectives to ensure improvements deliver meaningful value.
Question 23:
What type of change is pre-authorized and has an accepted procedure?
A) Normal change
B) Emergency change
C) Standard change
D) Routine change
Answer: C) Standard change
Explanation:
A standard change is a type of change that is pre-authorized, low risk, relatively common, and executed according to an established procedure or work instruction. These changes are assessed and authorized in advance, which eliminates the need for individual approval each time they are implemented. This pre-authorization enables organizations to implement standard changes efficiently and consistently while maintaining adequate control and governance over the process.
Standard changes are typically well understood and have a history of successful execution. They are supported by documented procedures that clearly define the steps, responsibilities, and validation criteria required for implementation. Examples of standard changes include adding a new user account, deploying a routine software patch, replacing standard desktop hardware, or performing configuration updates that have minimal impact on services. Because they are low risk and repeatable, standard changes generally do not require review by a change authority for each occurrence, reducing administrative overhead while maintaining process integrity.
It is important to distinguish standard changes from other change types. Normal changes are not pre-authorized; they require assessment, authorization, and often a change advisory board review before implementation. Emergency changes are performed urgently to resolve incidents or security issues and follow expedited procedures, but they are not standard and do not rely on pre-approved work instructions. The term “routine change” is not a recognized ITIL category and should not be used interchangeably with standard change.
Organizations should periodically review their standard changes to ensure the documented procedures remain appropriate and continue to reflect low-risk operations. Over time, some normal changes may be reclassified as standard changes as experience demonstrates that they can be safely implemented repeatedly. Conversely, if a standard change begins to introduce problems or risk, it should be reassessed and potentially reclassified to ensure continued control and compliance with ITIL best practices.
Question 24:
Which dimension of service management includes consideration of organizational culture?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) Value streams and processes
Answer: A) Organizations and people
Explanation:
The organizations and people dimension of service management includes consideration of organizational culture, which is one of the most important factors influencing how effectively an organization can deliver services and create value. Culture encompasses the shared values, beliefs, norms, and behaviors that characterize an organization and influence how people work together and make decisions.
Organizational culture affects nearly every aspect of service management including how openly people communicate, how willing they are to collaborate across boundaries, how they respond to change, and how they approach problem-solving. A culture that supports service management principles will emphasize customer focus, continual improvement, collaboration, and transparency. Understanding and working with organizational culture is essential for successful service management initiatives.
Option B is incorrect because the information and technology dimension focuses on the information needed for service management and the technologies that support and enable it, not on cultural aspects. Option C is incorrect because the partners and suppliers dimension addresses relationships with external organizations and how they contribute to service delivery. Option D is incorrect because the value streams and processes dimension focuses on how activities and workflows are organized to create value.
Culture change is often one of the most challenging aspects of service management transformation because culture is deeply embedded and resistant to change. Successful organizations recognize the importance of culture and work deliberately to develop cultures that support their service management objectives. This may involve leadership modeling desired behaviors, recognizing and rewarding behaviors that align with desired culture, and addressing practices and structures that reinforce old cultural patterns.
Question 25:
What is the purpose of the service level management practice?
A) To ensure that services achieve agreed and expected performance
B) To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests
C) To minimize the negative impact of incidents
D) To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
Answer: A) To ensure that services achieve agreed and expected performance
Explanation:
The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service levels and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets. Service level management works to ensure that services achieve agreed and expected performance by defining, documenting, and actively managing the levels of service that will be delivered.
Service level management involves understanding customer requirements, agreeing on appropriate service levels that balance customer needs with organizational capabilities and costs, monitoring actual service performance, and reporting on whether targets are being met. The practice also works to identify opportunities for improvement when services are not meeting targets or when customer needs change.
Option B is incorrect because capturing demand for incident resolution and service requests is the purpose of the service desk practice. Service level management is concerned with the targets for how well these and other services perform. Option C is incorrect because minimizing the negative impact of incidents is the purpose of incident management. Service level management may define targets for incident resolution times but does not handle the incidents themselves. Option D is incorrect because planning and managing the full lifecycle of all IT assets is the purpose of IT asset management.
Effective service level management requires good relationships with customers to understand their needs and expectations. It also requires integration with other practices to ensure that services are designed and operated to meet targets. Service levels should be meaningful and based on what matters to customers rather than on what is easy to measure.
Question 26:
Which guiding principle recommends eliminating activities that do not contribute to value?
A) Focus on value
B) Keep it simple and practical
C) Optimize and automate
D) Progress iteratively with feedback
Answer: B) Keep it simple and practical
Explanation:
The “keep it simple and practical” guiding principle recommends eliminating anything that does not contribute to value, including unnecessary activities, processes, services, and metrics. This principle emphasizes the importance of simplicity and avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizational operations. It advocates for using the minimum number of steps needed to accomplish objectives while ensuring that every step, action, or process adds tangible value to the business or its stakeholders.
Over time, organizations tend to accumulate additional procedures, controls, and metrics, many of which may have seemed necessary when first introduced but no longer provide meaningful value. By applying this principle, organizations regularly challenge the necessity of existing practices and remove or simplify those that are redundant or non-value-adding. This approach not only enhances operational efficiency but also improves clarity, making processes easier for people to understand and follow. Reduced complexity minimizes the likelihood of errors, accelerates decision-making, and ensures resources are focused on activities that truly matter.
It is important to differentiate this principle from related concepts. While focusing on value emphasizes ensuring that activities generate stakeholder benefit, it does not specifically target the elimination of unnecessary complexity. Similarly, the “optimize and automate” principle focuses on improving efficiency and leveraging technology, but the primary emphasis of “keep it simple and practical” is on simplicity itself. Progressing iteratively with feedback, on the other hand, is about delivering value in manageable increments, which complements simplicity but is not the same.
Applying this principle effectively requires critical thinking about every activity and process step. Organizations should ask questions such as: “Is this step truly necessary?” and “What would happen if it were removed?” Often, activities persist simply because they have historically been done, even though circumstances have changed. By actively removing or simplifying non-essential elements, organizations can streamline operations, enhance agility, and ensure that effort is concentrated on value-creating activities, delivering outcomes more efficiently and effectively.
Question 27:
Which practice ensures that an organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately?
A) Relationship management
B) Supplier management
C) Service level management
D) IT asset management
Answer: B) Supplier management
Explanation:
The supplier management practice ensures that an organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed effectively to support the delivery of quality products and services. This practice covers the entire supplier lifecycle, from identifying potential suppliers to contract management, performance monitoring, and eventual contract renewal or termination. Its objective is to ensure that supplier relationships consistently deliver value and meet the organization’s operational, strategic, and compliance needs.
Key supplier management activities include defining organizational requirements for suppliers, evaluating and selecting suitable suppliers, negotiating and formalizing contracts, managing ongoing supplier relationships, and monitoring and reviewing supplier performance. These activities help ensure that suppliers meet agreed-upon terms, adhere to quality and service expectations, and contribute positively to business outcomes. The practice also includes assessing supplier risks, dependencies, and strategic importance, allowing organizations to prioritize oversight and allocate resources appropriately. Prompt identification and resolution of issues with suppliers is critical to maintain service continuity and minimize operational or financial impacts.
It is important to distinguish supplier management from related practices. Relationship management focuses on broader stakeholder relationships across strategic and tactical levels, not solely on suppliers. Service level management deals with defining and monitoring service performance targets rather than managing supplier relationships. IT asset management focuses on the lifecycle of IT assets, including acquisition, maintenance, and disposal, and does not specifically address supplier interactions.
Effective supplier management has become increasingly critical as organizations rely more heavily on external suppliers for key services, components, and capabilities. Different types of suppliers may require different approaches: strategic or high-risk suppliers often necessitate close, collaborative partnerships, while commodity or low-risk suppliers can be managed with more transactional oversight. By implementing structured supplier management practices, organizations can reduce risk, optimize supplier performance, and ensure that supplier contributions align with organizational objectives and overall service quality standards.
Question 28:
What is defined as a tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity?
A) Output
B) Outcome
C) Value
D) Utility
Answer: A) Output
Explanation:
An output is defined as a tangible or intangible deliverable produced by an activity or process. Outputs are the direct results of performing work and can typically be measured, observed, or documented. They represent what is produced as a consequence of executing a process, performing tasks, or delivering services. Examples of outputs include a deployed software application, a resolved incident ticket, a completed change request, a configuration item update, or a generated report. Outputs are often necessary prerequisites for achieving outcomes, but on their own, they do not guarantee value.
Outputs are important because they provide clear evidence that work has been performed and can be assessed for quality, timeliness, and completeness. However, it is critical to distinguish outputs from outcomes and value. Outputs are focused on the “what” is produced, whereas outcomes focus on the “so what”—the effect or benefit that stakeholders experience as a result of the outputs. For example, deploying an email system is an output, while the resulting improved communication, collaboration, and productivity for users represent the outcome. Similarly, producing a report is an output; the insight or decisions enabled by that report are the outcome.
Option B is incorrect because outcomes are stakeholder-focused results enabled by outputs, not the deliverables themselves. Option C is incorrect because value represents the perceived benefits, usefulness, or importance of a service or product, which extends beyond the tangible or intangible outputs. Option D is incorrect because utility refers to the functionality a service provides, which contributes to value but is not itself an output of an activity.
Understanding the distinction between outputs and outcomes is fundamental to effective service management. Organizations should define, track, and measure outputs to ensure processes are executed correctly, but the primary focus should be on outcomes, as they reflect the real benefits delivered to stakeholders. The service value chain produces outputs deliberately to enable outcomes, creating measurable value while ensuring that deliverables align with organizational objectives and stakeholder expectations.
Question 29:
Which value chain activity ensures that the organization continually meets stakeholder expectations?
A) Engage
B) Plan
C) Deliver and support
D) Improve
Answer: A) Engage
Explanation:
The engage value chain activity ensures continual engagement with all stakeholders to guarantee that the organization understands stakeholder needs, maintains transparency about services and performance, and fosters strong, effective relationships. This activity enables organizations to build trust and alignment by maintaining ongoing dialogue with stakeholders, ensuring that services are designed, delivered, and improved in ways that meet evolving expectations.
The engage activity encompasses several key practices, including understanding stakeholder requirements and expectations, providing timely and accurate information about services and performance, managing relationships at operational, tactical, and strategic levels, and gathering stakeholder feedback. By doing so, the organization can anticipate changes in needs, address concerns proactively, and ensure that services remain relevant and valuable. Engagement also facilitates collaboration and partnership with stakeholders, which can drive innovation, improve service design, and strengthen overall organizational performance.
Option B is incorrect because the plan activity focuses on creating a shared understanding of vision, current status, and direction for products and services, rather than actively managing relationships with stakeholders. Option C is incorrect because deliver and support is concerned with executing service delivery according to agreed specifications, which involves operational tasks rather than engagement. Option D is incorrect because the improve activity is about continual improvement of products, services, and practices and does not primarily focus on stakeholder interaction.
Effective engagement requires identifying all stakeholders, including customers, users, employees, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other relevant parties. Understanding their needs, expectations, and preferred communication channels is essential for building trust and ensuring that services remain aligned with business objectives. By embedding stakeholder engagement into the service value chain, organizations can ensure that perspectives are considered across strategy, design, delivery, and improvement activities. This approach strengthens relationships, enhances transparency, and ensures that services deliver value in line with stakeholder expectations.
Question 30:
Which is an example of an emergency change?
A) Installing a scheduled software upgrade
B) Applying a security patch to prevent exploitation
C) Adding a new user account
D) Replacing a standard workstation
Answer: B) Applying a security patch to prevent exploitation
Explanation:
Applying a security patch to prevent exploitation of a vulnerability is a classic example of an emergency change. Emergency changes are defined as changes that must be implemented immediately to resolve an incident, security vulnerability, or other critical issue that poses a significant risk to the organization. Because delaying the change could result in operational disruption, data loss, security breaches, or other serious consequences, emergency changes follow expedited procedures that prioritize speed while still maintaining necessary controls.
Although emergency changes require rapid implementation, they still necessitate appropriate authorization and assessment. Typically, the assessment and approval processes are streamlined to enable swift action, and higher levels of risk are accepted because the potential harm of inaction outweighs the risks of accelerated deployment. Documentation, testing, and validation may also be condensed, but they are not completely bypassed, ensuring that the change is controlled and accountable. After implementation, emergency changes should be retrospectively reviewed to evaluate effectiveness, identify lessons learned, and confirm that the emergency procedures were appropriate. This post-implementation review helps refine the emergency change process for future incidents.
Option A is incorrect because installing a scheduled software upgrade is a planned activity and typically follows normal change procedures. Option C is incorrect because adding a new user account is usually a standard, pre-authorized change that can be implemented through established procedures. Option D is incorrect because replacing a standard workstation is normally a standard change performed according to documented procedures without emergency handling.
Organizations should define clear criteria for emergency changes, including the types of incidents or vulnerabilities that qualify, who can authorize such changes, and how accelerated procedures should be executed. Establishing these criteria ensures that emergency changes are handled consistently and effectively, minimizing risk while addressing urgent operational needs. By following structured emergency change processes, organizations can quickly mitigate threats and maintain business continuity while retaining accountability and control over change activities.
Question 31:
What is the purpose of the relationship management practice?
A) To establish and nurture links between the organization and stakeholders
B) To ensure that suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
C) To set clear business-based targets for service performance
D) To align the organization’s practices with business needs
Answer: A) To establish and nurture links between the organization and stakeholders
Explanation:
The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. This practice ensures that the organization understands and considers stakeholder needs when making decisions about services and service management. It builds and maintains positive relationships that enable mutual understanding and trust.
Relationship management works at different levels depending on the stakeholder. Strategic relationship management focuses on understanding stakeholder needs and expectations at a high level and ensuring services align with business strategy. Tactical relationship management focuses on day-to-day relationship building and service coordination. The practice ensures regular communication and engagement with stakeholders to maintain strong relationships over time.
Option B is incorrect because ensuring that suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately is the purpose of the supplier management practice, which is specifically focused on supplier relationships. Option C is incorrect because setting clear business-based targets for service performance is the purpose of service level management, not relationship management. Option D is incorrect because aligning the organization’s practices with business needs is an outcome of good service management but not the specific purpose of relationship management.
Effective relationship management requires understanding different stakeholder groups and their needs, maintaining regular contact through appropriate channels, demonstrating value through service delivery, and responding effectively to stakeholder feedback and concerns. The practice should ensure that relationships are managed consistently and that important stakeholder perspectives inform service decisions.
Question 32:
Which dimension of service management ensures that reliable information is available?
A) Organizations and people
B) Information and technology
C) Partners and suppliers
D) Value streams and processes
Answer: B) Information and technology
Explanation:
The information and technology dimension of service management ensures that the information and knowledge necessary for the management of services, as well as the technologies required to provide and support services, are available and fit for purpose. This dimension addresses the information and data that organizations use and generate as they provide services.
This dimension covers several aspects including the information architecture that defines what information is needed and how it flows, the technologies used to store and process information, the knowledge management approaches used to capture and share knowledge, and the emerging technologies that may enable new service capabilities. It ensures that information is accurate, accessible, secure, and appropriately managed throughout its lifecycle.
Option A is incorrect because the organizations and people dimension focuses on how people are organized, their roles and responsibilities, skills and competencies, and organizational culture. Option C is incorrect because the partners and suppliers dimension focuses on relationships with external organizations that contribute to service delivery. Option D is incorrect because the value streams and processes dimension focuses on how activities and workflows are organized to deliver value.
Information and technology are increasingly critical enablers of service delivery. Organizations must ensure they have the right information architecture to support decision-making, the appropriate technologies to deliver services efficiently, and the capabilities to leverage emerging technologies. This dimension also addresses information security and the protection of sensitive data.
Question 33:
What is the definition of a service?
A) A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes customers want
B) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value
C) The amount of money spent on specific activities or resources
D) A configuration item that enables delivery of IT services
Answer: A) A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes customers want
Explanation:
A service is defined as a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks. This definition emphasizes that services exist to enable customers to achieve their desired outcomes and that value is co-created through the interaction between provider and consumer.
The concept of value co-creation recognizes that the service provider and the service consumer both contribute to creating value. The provider offers capabilities, resources, and expertise through the service, while the consumer determines how the service will be used and what outcomes they seek to achieve. Services enable customers to achieve outcomes without having to manage all the associated costs and risks themselves.
Option B is incorrect because this describes service management, not a service itself. Service management is the set of organizational capabilities for enabling value through services. Option C is incorrect because this describes cost, which is the amount of money spent on activities or resources, not the definition of a service. Option D is incorrect because this describes a configuration item, which is a component that needs to be managed to deliver IT services.
Understanding this definition of service is fundamental to ITIL 4 because it shifts focus from just delivering functionality to enabling outcomes that customers value. It recognizes that the same service may enable different outcomes for different customers and that true value comes from achieving outcomes, not just from receiving deliverables.
Question 34:
Which practice coordinates the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users?
A) Service desk
B) Service request management
C) Incident management
D) Change enablement
Answer: A) Service desk
Explanation:
The service desk practice coordinates the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users. As the single point of contact between the service provider and users, the service desk receives all types of user contacts and ensures they are properly classified, routed to appropriate teams or practices, and tracked through to resolution or fulfillment.
Classification involves determining what type of contact has been received such as an incident report, service request, question, or feedback. The service desk ensures that each contact is properly categorized and assigned to the appropriate owner for handling. This coordination role is essential for ensuring that user needs are met efficiently and that nothing falls through the gaps between different practices or teams.
Option B is incorrect because service request management handles the lifecycle of service requests but does not coordinate all types of queries and requests from users. It is more narrowly focused on service requests specifically. Option C is incorrect because incident management manages the lifecycle of incidents but does not coordinate all types of user queries. Option D is incorrect because change enablement focuses on assessing and authorizing changes, not on coordinating user queries.
The coordination role of the service desk is vital for providing good user experience. Users should not need to understand the internal organization of the service provider or which team handles which type of request. The service desk provides a consistent interface that handles this complexity on behalf of users while ensuring requests reach the right handlers.
Question 35:
Which value chain activity ensures products and services continually meet stakeholder expectations?
A) Design and transition
B) Obtain/build
C) Deliver and support
D) Improve
Answer: A) Design and transition
Explanation:
The design and transition value chain activity ensures that products and services continually meet stakeholder expectations for quality, costs, and time to market. This activity encompasses both the design of new or changed services and the transition of these services into live use. It ensures services are designed based on an understanding of stakeholder needs and are successfully transitioned to operational status.
Design and transition includes activities such as understanding requirements, designing service architectures and components, planning and managing transitions, testing and validating services, and ensuring services are ready for live use. The activity works to balance multiple considerations including functionality, performance, cost, risk, and compliance to ensure services meet expectations.
Option B is incorrect because obtain/build focuses on ensuring service components are available when needed, not on the overall design to meet stakeholder expectations. Option C is incorrect because deliver and support focuses on executing the delivery and support of services according to agreed specifications, not on designing them to meet expectations. Option D is incorrect because improve focuses on continual improvement across all value chain activities and dimensions.
Effective design and transition requires close collaboration with stakeholders to understand their needs and expectations. It requires consideration of all four dimensions of service management to ensure services are holistically designed. The activity must also ensure that services can be effectively operated and supported before they are transitioned to live use.
Question 36:
What is the purpose of the monitoring and event management practice?
A) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
B) To systematically observe services and service components
C) To ensure that accurate information about configuration items is available
D) To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents
Answer: B) To systematically observe services and service components
Explanation:
The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and service components and record and report selected changes of state identified as events. This practice provides the foundation for service assurance and optimization by ensuring that services and components are continuously monitored and that significant changes in state are detected and acted upon.
Monitoring and event management involves defining what should be monitored, establishing monitoring capabilities, detecting and filtering events, determining appropriate responses to events, and triggering actions when needed. Events may indicate that something requires attention such as a threshold being exceeded or may simply be informational. The practice ensures that the organization has visibility into service performance and health.
Option A is incorrect because restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible is the purpose of incident management. While monitoring and event management may detect incidents, restoration is not its purpose. Option C is incorrect because ensuring accurate information about configuration items is available is the purpose of configuration management. Option D is incorrect because reducing the likelihood and impact of incidents is the purpose of problem management.
Effective monitoring and event management enables proactive service management by detecting potential issues before they cause major incidents. It provides data that supports many other practices including incident management, problem management, availability management, and capacity management. The practice must balance comprehensive monitoring with avoiding excessive noise from too many events.
Question 37:
Which guiding principle emphasizes the importance of customer experience?
A) Focus on value
B) Think and work holistically
C) Collaborate and promote visibility
D) Keep it simple and practical
Answer: A) Focus on value
Explanation:
The focus on value guiding principle emphasizes the importance of understanding and focusing on value for stakeholders, which includes the customer experience. This principle states that everything the organization does should link back to value for the organization and its stakeholders including customers, users, employees, shareholders, and others. Customer experience is a key component of the value that services deliver.
This principle requires organizations to understand who their stakeholders are, what they value, and how services contribute to that value. For customers and users, experience is often a critical part of value. A service that functions well but provides a poor experience may not deliver adequate value. The principle encourages organizations to consider value from multiple stakeholder perspectives and to ensure all activities contribute to value creation.
Option B is incorrect because think and work holistically is about considering all four dimensions of service management and their relationships, not specifically about customer experience. Option C is incorrect because collaborate and promote visibility is about involving the right people and making work transparent, which supports value creation but is not primarily about customer experience. Option D is incorrect because keep it simple and practical is about eliminating unnecessary complexity.
Applying the focus on value principle means regularly evaluating whether activities and services are creating value, involving stakeholders to understand what they value, and making decisions based on value rather than other considerations. It requires looking beyond just the functionality of services to consider the overall experience and outcomes.
Question 38:
What is an IT asset?
A) Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
B) Any component that needs to be managed to deliver an IT service
C) A means of enabling value co-creation
D) A result for a stakeholder enabled by outputs
Answer: A) Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
Explanation:
An IT asset is defined as any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service. IT assets are tracked and managed because they have financial value to the organization and require investment to acquire, maintain, and eventually dispose of. Assets include hardware, software, licenses, and other components that represent financial investment.
IT asset management focuses on the financial and lifecycle aspects of assets including acquisition costs, depreciation, licensing compliance, maintenance costs, and disposal. Assets are tracked from acquisition through operational use to retirement and disposal. Understanding the financial value and lifecycle of assets helps organizations make informed decisions about investments, renewals, and replacements.
Option B is incorrect because this describes a configuration item, not an IT asset. Configuration items are tracked for their technical relationships and dependencies rather than primarily for their financial value. Option C is incorrect because this is the definition of a service, not an asset. Option D is incorrect because this is the definition of an outcome, which is the result stakeholders experience from using services.
While there is overlap between IT assets and configuration items, they are managed with different emphases. Asset management emphasizes financial tracking and lifecycle management while configuration management emphasizes technical relationships and dependencies. Many items are both assets and configuration items and benefit from both types of management.
Question 39:
Which practice includes the management of workarounds?
A) Incident management
B) Problem management
C) Change enablement
D) Service request management
Answer: B) Problem management
Explanation:
The problem management practice includes the management of workarounds. When a problem is identified but the root cause cannot be immediately resolved or when resolution would require a complex change, problem management documents the problem as a known error and establishes workarounds that can be used when incidents related to the problem occur.
A workaround is a solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available. Workarounds may be temporary solutions used while a permanent fix is developed, or they may be long-term solutions when the cost or risk of a full fix is not justified. Problem management maintains documentation about workarounds so they can be quickly applied when needed.
Option A is incorrect because while incident management may apply workarounds to restore service, it is problem management that establishes and maintains documentation of workarounds. Incident management focuses on quick restoration while problem management focuses on understanding and managing the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect because change enablement focuses on assessing and authorizing changes, not on managing workarounds. Option D is incorrect because service request management handles user-initiated requests for services.
The known error database maintained by problem management contains information about identified problems and their workarounds. This information is valuable for incident management because it enables faster incident resolution when similar incidents occur. Problem management continually works to reduce the need for workarounds by identifying and implementing permanent solutions.
Question 40:
Which value chain activity includes second-line support?
A) Engage
B) Design and transition
C) Obtain/build
D) Deliver and support
Answer: D) Deliver and support
Explanation:
The deliver and support value chain activity includes second-line support as well as all activities required to ensure that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications and stakeholder expectations. This activity encompasses the day-to-day operational activities needed to provide services to users including various levels of support from first-line through to specialist technical support.
Second-line support typically handles incidents and requests that cannot be resolved by first-line support and require deeper technical knowledge or investigation. Deliver and support ensures that appropriate support resources and capabilities are available at all levels to meet user needs effectively. The activity coordinates support activities and ensures seamless handoffs between support levels.
Option A is incorrect because engage focuses on understanding stakeholder needs and maintaining relationships, not on providing technical support. Option B is incorrect because design and transition focuses on creating and transitioning services, not on operational support. Option C is incorrect because obtain/build focuses on acquiring or creating service components, not on supporting operational services.
The deliver and support activity must balance multiple considerations including service quality, cost, user satisfaction, and efficiency. It includes not just reactive support in response to incidents but also proactive activities to maintain service health and prevent issues. The activity relies on many practices including incident management, service desk, problem management, and others.
