Visit here for our full Microsoft MS-900 exam dumps and practice test questions.
Question 181:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides automated investigation and response to security threats?
A) Microsoft 365 Defender
B) Microsoft Paint
C) Microsoft Calculator
D) Windows Media Player
Answer: A
Explanation:
Microsoft 365 Defender provides automated investigation and response capabilities to security threats across endpoints, email, identities, and applications. This unified extended detection and response platform correlates signals from multiple security services to identify complex attacks and automatically remediate threats without manual intervention.
When Microsoft 365 Defender detects threats including malware, suspicious files, or compromised accounts, automated investigation analyzes the threat scope, identifies affected systems and users, determines relationships between alerts, and executes remediation actions. These actions may include quarantining files, isolating devices, blocking malicious URLs, disabling compromised accounts, or deleting malicious emails from all mailboxes.
Automation uses playbooks defining investigation steps and remediation actions appropriate for different threat types. These playbooks ensure consistent threat handling following documented procedures. Security teams review remediation actions through a centralized action center where they can approve pending actions, track investigation progress, and understand what was remediated automatically.
Automated investigation and remediation dramatically reduces response times from hours to minutes, ensures consistent threat handling across the organization, scales security operations enabling small teams to handle large threat volumes, and frees analysts to focus on complex investigations requiring human judgment rather than routine threat remediation.
B) is incorrect because Microsoft Paint is an image editing application without security capabilities.
C) is incorrect as Microsoft Calculator performs mathematical operations without security features.
D) is incorrect because Windows Media Player is for media playback not security.
Question 182:
What is the purpose of Azure AD Conditional Access policies?
A) Weather forecasting
B) Controlling access based on conditions like location and device compliance
C) Traffic management
D) Building access control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure AD Conditional Access policies control access to applications and resources based on specific conditions evaluated at authentication time. These policies enable organizations to implement intelligent, risk-based access control that strengthens security when risks are elevated while maintaining user experience in trusted scenarios.
Conditional Access evaluates multiple signals before granting access including user identity, group membership, location determined by IP address, device compliance status indicating whether devices meet security requirements, application sensitivity, sign-in risk level from Identity Protection, and real-time risk factors. Based on these conditions, policies can require multi-factor authentication, require compliant devices, require approved client applications, block access entirely, or grant access with restrictions.
Organizations create policies targeting specific users, groups, or all users and define conditions under which additional controls are required. For example, policies might require MFA when users sign in from outside corporate networks, block access from specific countries, require compliant devices for accessing sensitive applications, or require password changes when sign-in risks are detected.
Conditional Access implements Zero Trust security principles by continuously evaluating access requests based on current context rather than assuming trust from previous authentication. This approach adapts security controls to risk levels providing appropriate protection without unnecessary user friction.
A) is incorrect because weather forecasting is unrelated to access control policies.
C) is incorrect as traffic management involves network routing not access control.
D) is incorrect because building access control is physical security not identity access control.
Question 183:
Which Microsoft 365 feature helps organizations classify and protect sensitive documents?
A) Sensitivity labels
B) File compression
C) Spell checking
D) Font formatting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sensitivity labels help organizations classify and protect sensitive documents by providing consistent classification framework that applies protection controls based on content sensitivity. Labels enable users and administrators to identify confidential information and ensure it receives appropriate protection throughout its lifecycle.
Organizations configure sensitivity labels defining different classification levels such as Public, Internal, Confidential, and Highly Confidential. Each label can enforce protection actions including encryption restricting access to authorized users, access restrictions preventing copying or forwarding, watermarks identifying document sensitivity, content marking adding headers or footers, and protection that follows documents even when shared externally.
Users apply sensitivity labels manually in Office applications, or auto-labeling can apply labels automatically based on detecting sensitive content like credit card numbers, social security numbers, or custom-defined patterns. Labels appear visually in Office applications helping users recognize content sensitivity and handle it appropriately.
Sensitivity labels integrate across Microsoft 365 services including Office applications, Outlook, SharePoint, OneDrive, and Teams providing consistent classification regardless of where content is created or stored. Labels also work with data loss prevention policies, retention policies, and Cloud App Security to provide comprehensive information protection.
B) is incorrect because file compression reduces file sizes not classifies or protects content.
C) is incorrect as spell checking identifies spelling errors not classifies documents.
D) is incorrect because font formatting changes text appearance not classifies or protects content.
Question 184:
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Intune?
A) Email hosting
B) Mobile device and application management
C) Video conferencing
D) File compression
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary purpose of Microsoft Intune is mobile device and application management providing comprehensive capabilities for managing and securing devices that access corporate resources. Intune enables organizations to protect corporate data on diverse devices including company-owned and personal devices across Windows, iOS, Android, and macOS platforms.
Intune provides mobile device management capabilities including device enrollment bringing devices under management, configuration profiles applying settings and restrictions, compliance policies defining security requirements devices must meet, conditional access integration blocking non-compliant devices from accessing resources, and remote actions enabling wipe or retire of corporate data from devices.
Mobile application management capabilities protect corporate data within applications without requiring full device management. App protection policies prevent data leakage by restricting copy-paste to unmanaged apps, requiring app PINs, encrypting app data, and enabling selective wipe removing only corporate data while leaving personal content untouched.
Organizations use Intune to secure mobile workforces accessing corporate resources from various devices, implement bring-your-own-device programs allowing personal device usage while protecting corporate data, ensure devices meet security standards before accessing sensitive resources, and respond to lost or stolen devices by remotely wiping corporate data.
A) is incorrect because email hosting is provided by Exchange Online not Intune.
C) is incorrect as video conferencing is provided by Microsoft Teams not Intune.
D) is incorrect because file compression is not related to device management.
Question 185:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides business intelligence and data visualization?
A) Power BI
B) Microsoft Word
C) Microsoft Paint
D) Windows Calculator
Answer: A
Explanation:
Power BI provides business intelligence and data visualization capabilities enabling organizations to connect to multiple data sources, transform and model data, and create interactive reports and dashboards. The service helps users analyze data, discover insights, and make data-driven decisions through visual representations.
Power BI includes several components working together. Power BI Desktop is a Windows application for creating reports and data models. Power BI Service is the cloud platform for sharing reports, creating dashboards, and collaborating with colleagues. Power BI Mobile enables accessing reports and dashboards on smartphones and tablets. Power BI Embedded allows developers to integrate Power BI visualizations into custom applications.
Users connect Power BI to hundreds of data sources including Microsoft 365 services, SQL databases, Excel files, cloud services, and web services. Data can be imported or connected live enabling real-time dashboards. Power BI provides transformation and modeling capabilities to clean, shape, and relate data from multiple sources creating unified views.
Visualizations include charts, graphs, maps, tables, and custom visuals enabling users to explore data interactively. Natural language queries allow asking questions in plain English and receiving visual answers. Reports update automatically as underlying data changes ensuring users always see current information.
B) is incorrect because Microsoft Word is a document editing application not business intelligence.
C) is incorrect as Microsoft Paint is an image editing tool not data visualization.
D) is incorrect because Windows Calculator performs calculations not business intelligence.
Question 186:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 Data Loss Prevention policies?
A) Backing up deleted files
B) Preventing sensitive information from being shared inappropriately
C) Increasing storage capacity
D) Improving network speed
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of Microsoft 365 Data Loss Prevention policies is preventing sensitive information from being shared inappropriately by detecting and blocking transmission of confidential data through email, documents, Teams messages, and other channels. DLP protects organizations from accidental or intentional data leakage.
DLP policies scan content for sensitive information using built-in or custom sensitive information types. Built-in types detect patterns like credit card numbers, social security numbers, passport numbers, financial data, and health information. Organizations can create custom sensitive information types using keywords, regular expressions, or exact data matches.
When DLP detects policy violations, it can execute various actions including blocking transmission preventing emails from being sent or files from being shared, encrypting content automatically protecting sensitive information, requiring business justification prompting users to explain why they are sharing sensitive data, showing policy tips educating users about violations, and alerting administrators for investigation.
DLP policies apply across Microsoft 365 services including Exchange Online for email, SharePoint and OneDrive for documents, Teams for messages and files, and Endpoint for files on Windows devices. This comprehensive coverage ensures consistent protection regardless of how users attempt to share sensitive information.
A) is incorrect because backing up deleted files is handled by retention policies and recycle bins not DLP.
C) is incorrect as increasing storage capacity is unrelated to data loss prevention.
D) is incorrect because improving network speed is unrelated to protecting sensitive information.
Question 187:
Which Microsoft 365 feature provides protection against malicious attachments in email?
A) Safe Attachments in Defender for Office 365
B) OneDrive storage
C) Teams meetings
D) Planner boards
Answer: A
Explanation:
Safe Attachments in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 provides protection against malicious email attachments by opening them in a virtual sandboxed environment before delivery to recipients. This dynamic analysis detects malicious behavior that signature-based antivirus might miss including zero-day threats and sophisticated malware.
When emails arrive with attachments, Safe Attachments detonates them in isolated virtual machines observing their behavior. The analysis looks for malicious actions like attempting to modify system files, establishing network connections to command-and-control servers, encrypting files for ransomware, or injecting code into processes. If malicious behavior is detected, the attachment is blocked and administrators are alerted. If the attachment appears safe, it is delivered to the recipient.
This approach provides protection against advanced threats including polymorphic malware that changes signatures to evade detection, weaponized documents exploiting vulnerabilities in Office applications, executables disguised as legitimate software, and targeted attacks using custom malware. Safe Attachments complements traditional antivirus providing additional protection layer for sophisticated threats.
Organizations configure Safe Attachments policies defining which users receive protection, how to handle emails during scanning, whether to deliver emails with safe attachments or wait for analysis completion, and what to do with detected threats.
B) is incorrect because OneDrive storage provides file storage not email attachment protection.
C) is incorrect as Teams meetings provide video conferencing not attachment protection.
D) is incorrect because Planner boards provide task management not attachment protection.
Question 188:
What is the primary benefit of using Microsoft 365 Groups?
A) Reducing email storage
B) Creating shared workspace for team collaboration
C) Blocking spam
D) Compressing files
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary benefit of using Microsoft 365 Groups is creating shared workspaces that bring together multiple collaboration tools for team members. Groups automatically provision integrated resources enabling teams to start collaborating quickly without administrators manually creating and configuring individual services.
When creating a Microsoft 365 Group, the system automatically provisions a shared Outlook mailbox for team email conversations, SharePoint team site for document storage and collaboration, OneNote notebook for shared notes, Planner board for task management, and optionally a Teams team for chat and meetings. Group members automatically gain appropriate access to all these resources without individual permission assignment.
This unified approach simplifies collaboration by providing teams with integrated tools ensuring everyone has consistent access. Groups eliminate the need to manage permissions separately across multiple services. Adding someone to the Group grants access to all Group resources automatically. This reduces administrative overhead and ensures permission consistency.
Groups can be public allowing anyone in the organization to discover and join them, or private requiring approval for membership. Owners manage Group membership, configure settings, and can delete Groups. Automated Group expiration policies can delete inactive Groups preventing sprawl and reducing unused resource accumulation.
A) is incorrect because reducing email storage is not the purpose of Groups though they do organize team communications.
C) is incorrect as blocking spam is handled by Exchange Online Protection not Groups.
D) is incorrect because compressing files is unrelated to team collaboration workspaces.
Question 189:
Which Microsoft 365 service helps organizations manage compliance requirements?
A) Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager
B) Microsoft Paint
C) Windows Media Player
D) Calculator
Answer: A
Explanation:
Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager helps organizations manage compliance requirements by providing assessment tools, compliance scoring, and actionable recommendations for meeting regulatory obligations. The service simplifies compliance management by translating complex regulatory requirements into specific actions organizations can take.
Compliance Manager includes pre-built assessments for major regulations and standards including GDPR for data protection, HIPAA for healthcare information, ISO 27001 for information security, NIST frameworks, SOC 2, and many others. Organizations can also create custom assessments for proprietary or industry-specific requirements.
The service evaluates current Microsoft 365 configurations against regulatory requirements calculating compliance scores showing progress toward full compliance. Higher scores indicate better alignment with regulatory requirements. Compliance Manager provides improvement actions explaining specific steps to address compliance gaps with detailed implementation guidance and links to relevant documentation.
Organizations use Compliance Manager to understand regulatory obligations applicable to their industry and geography, prioritize compliance investments based on risk and impact, track compliance improvements over time demonstrating progress, prepare for audits with documented evidence of compliance activities, and assign compliance tasks to appropriate teams ensuring accountability.
B) is incorrect because Microsoft Paint is an image editing application without compliance capabilities.
C) is incorrect as Windows Media Player is for media playback not compliance management.
D) is incorrect because Calculator performs mathematical operations not compliance management.
Question 190:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 retention policies?
A) Deleting all emails immediately
B) Managing how long content is kept or deleted
C) Compressing files
D) Improving network speed
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of Microsoft 365 retention policies is managing how long content is kept before deletion and preventing deletion during specified retention periods. Retention policies help organizations meet legal and regulatory requirements, implement defensible data management practices, and control storage costs through systematic content lifecycle management.
Retention policies define specific periods during which content must be retained before deletion is allowed. Organizations can create policies that retain content for specific durations like seven years for financial records then automatically delete it, retain content indefinitely for permanent records, or only delete content after certain periods without preventing deletion during retention periods.
Policies apply to entire locations like all mailboxes, SharePoint sites, Teams chats, or specific users and sites. Multiple retention policies can apply to the same content with conflict resolution rules determining which policy takes precedence. Retention labels provide item-level control allowing different retention requirements for specific documents or emails within broader policy scopes.
Organizations use retention policies to meet regulatory requirements demanding specific retention periods, implement legal holds preserving content for litigation, manage storage costs by automatically deleting old content no longer needed, and ensure consistent data management across the organization. Comprehensive audit logging tracks all retention actions ensuring accountability.
A) is incorrect because retention policies do not delete content immediately but manage retention periods.
C) is incorrect as compressing files is unrelated to retention management.
D) is incorrect because improving network speed is unrelated to content retention.
Question 191:
Which Microsoft 365 feature enables users to work on documents simultaneously?
A) Co-authoring
B) File locking
C) Version history
D) Document archiving
Answer: A
Explanation:
Co-authoring enables multiple users to work on the same document simultaneously in real-time seeing each other’s changes as they type. This feature dramatically improves collaboration efficiency by eliminating the need to take turns editing documents or manually merge changes from multiple versions.
Co-authoring works in Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and OneNote when documents are stored in OneDrive for Business or SharePoint Online. Users can co-author through Office desktop applications, Office for the web, or Office mobile apps. As users make changes, those changes sync through the cloud appearing immediately for other editors.
Visual indicators show where other users are currently working in the document preventing conflicts. Presence information identifies who else is editing the document. Users see cursors and selections of other editors helping coordinate work and avoid editing the same sections simultaneously. Changes are automatically saved ensuring no work is lost.
Co-authoring eliminates version conflicts that occur when multiple people edit separate copies of documents. Instead of maintaining multiple versions that must be manually merged, everyone works on the single current version. This reduces confusion about which version is current, prevents changes from being lost during merging, and ensures everyone always sees the latest content.
B) is incorrect because file locking prevents simultaneous editing by granting exclusive access to one user.
C) is incorrect as version history tracks changes over time not enables simultaneous editing.
D) is incorrect because document archiving stores old documents not enables simultaneous editing.
Question 192:
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint?
A) Email encryption
B) Endpoint protection and threat detection on devices
C) Document editing
D) Video streaming
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary purpose of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is providing comprehensive endpoint protection and threat detection for devices including laptops, desktops, servers, and mobile devices. Defender for Endpoint protects against malware, detects sophisticated attacks, and enables security teams to investigate and respond to threats across their device fleet.
Defender for Endpoint includes next-generation antivirus providing real-time protection against malware, attack surface reduction capabilities limiting exposure to threats by blocking risky behaviors, endpoint detection and response identifying suspicious activities and post-breach threats, automated investigation and remediation responding to threats automatically, and threat and vulnerability management identifying security weaknesses requiring remediation.
The service uses behavioral analysis, machine learning, and cloud intelligence to detect sophisticated attacks including fileless malware, living-off-the-land techniques using legitimate system tools maliciously, and zero-day exploits. Behavioral detection identifies suspicious activities even when no known malware signatures are present.
Security teams use centralized dashboards to view security alerts across all devices, investigate threats with detailed forensic information, respond to incidents by isolating devices or blocking files, hunt proactively for threats using advanced queries, and track remediation of vulnerabilities. Integration with Microsoft 365 Defender provides unified view of threats across endpoints, email, identities, and applications.
A) is incorrect because email encryption is provided by Exchange Online and Azure Information Protection not Defender for Endpoint.
C) is incorrect as document editing is provided by Office applications not Defender for Endpoint.
D) is incorrect because video streaming is unrelated to endpoint security.
Question 193:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides automated workflows between applications?
A) Power Automate
B) Microsoft Word
C) OneDrive
D) Outlook Calendar
Answer: A
Explanation:
Power Automate provides automated workflows between applications and services enabling users to create processes that trigger actions based on specific events or conditions. The service eliminates repetitive manual tasks by automating common business processes across Microsoft 365 and hundreds of other applications.
Power Automate uses a visual designer where users build workflows by connecting triggers and actions. Triggers are events that start workflows like receiving an email, adding a file to SharePoint, or submitting a form. Actions are operations the workflow performs like sending notifications, creating items, updating records, or approving requests.
Common automation scenarios include automatically saving email attachments to SharePoint or OneDrive, sending notifications when specific events occur, synchronizing data between applications, creating approval processes for documents or requests, collecting data from forms into spreadsheets or databases, and posting messages to Teams channels based on conditions.
Power Automate connects to Microsoft 365 services including SharePoint, OneDrive, Outlook, Teams, Planner, and Forms plus hundreds of third-party services like Salesforce, Twitter, Dropbox, and custom web services. Templates provide pre-built workflows for common scenarios that users can customize. Advanced workflows support conditional logic, loops, error handling, and complex data transformations.
B) is incorrect because Microsoft Word is a document editing application not workflow automation.
C) is incorrect as OneDrive provides file storage and synchronization not workflow automation.
D) is incorrect because Outlook Calendar manages schedules not automates workflows.
Question 194:
What is the purpose of Azure AD Identity Protection?
A) File backup
B) Detecting and remediating identity-based risks
C) Video editing
D) Music streaming
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of Azure AD Identity Protection is detecting and remediating identity-based risks by analyzing sign-in behaviors and user activities to identify suspicious patterns indicating compromised accounts or credential theft. Identity Protection uses machine learning and Microsoft’s threat intelligence to protect against account takeover attacks.
Identity Protection detects various risk types including leaked credentials found in breach databases, anonymous IP addresses from Tor or VPNs, impossible travel where accounts authenticate from geographically distant locations within unrealistic timeframes, unfamiliar sign-in properties indicating new devices or locations, malware-linked IP addresses, and atypical travel patterns deviating from normal behavior.
When risks are detected, Identity Protection can automatically respond based on configured risk policies. Responses include requiring multi-factor authentication for risky sign-ins, requiring password changes for compromised users, blocking access entirely for high-risk scenarios, or alerting administrators for investigation. Automated responses occur in real-time preventing account compromise from succeeding.
Administrators receive risk reports identifying risky users requiring investigation, risky sign-ins that were blocked or allowed, and risk detections showing what triggered alerts. Organizations use Identity Protection to prevent credential-based attacks, detect compromised accounts quickly, respond automatically to threats reducing exposure, and continuously improve security by analyzing attack patterns.
A) is incorrect because file backup is unrelated to identity protection.
C) is incorrect as video editing is unrelated to identity security.
D) is incorrect because music streaming is unrelated to identity protection.
Question 195:
Which Microsoft 365 feature helps organizations discover and classify personal data?
A) Data Loss Prevention with sensitive information types
B) File compression
C) Spell checking
D) Font formatting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention with sensitive information types helps organizations discover and classify personal data across Microsoft 365 services. DLP scans content in emails, documents, Teams messages, and files identifying personally identifiable information and other sensitive data requiring protection.
DLP uses sensitive information types to recognize patterns matching personal data including social security numbers, passport numbers, driver license numbers, credit card numbers, bank account numbers, health information, and custom-defined patterns. Both built-in and custom sensitive information types enable organizations to identify data relevant to their specific compliance requirements.
When DLP discovers sensitive information, it can automatically classify content by applying sensitivity labels, alert data protection officers about where personal data resides, enforce protection policies preventing inappropriate sharing, and provide reporting showing what personal data exists and where it is located. This discovery capability supports GDPR and other privacy regulations requiring organizations to know what personal data they process.
Organizations use DLP for data discovery to create comprehensive inventories of personal data locations, identify high-risk areas where sensitive data is widely accessible, ensure appropriate protection is applied to discovered data, demonstrate compliance with data protection regulations, and respond to data subject requests by locating all instances of individual’s personal data.
B) is incorrect because file compression reduces file sizes not discovers personal data.
C) is incorrect as spell checking identifies spelling errors not personal data.
D) is incorrect because font formatting changes text appearance not classifies data.
Question 196:
What is the primary benefit of Microsoft 365 Multi-Factor Authentication?
A) Increasing storage capacity
B) Strengthening account security beyond passwords
C) Improving network speed
D) Compressing files
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary benefit of Microsoft 365 Multi-Factor Authentication is strengthening account security beyond passwords by requiring additional verification factors before granting access. MFA significantly reduces the risk of account compromise from stolen or weak passwords by adding layers of authentication that are more difficult for attackers to bypass.
MFA requires users to provide something they know like a password plus something they have like a phone for receiving verification codes or something they are through biometric authentication. Common second factors include verification codes sent via SMS or mobile app, push notifications to Microsoft Authenticator app requiring approval, phone calls with verification prompts, or hardware security keys providing cryptographic proof.
Account compromise through password theft is one of the most common security breaches. Even strong passwords can be stolen through phishing, data breaches, or keylogging malware. MFA prevents these stolen passwords from being useful to attackers because they lack the second authentication factor. Studies show MFA blocks over 99% of account compromise attacks.
Organizations configure MFA requirements through Conditional Access policies determining when additional verification is required. Policies might require MFA for all users, only when signing in from untrusted locations, when accessing sensitive applications, or based on calculated sign-in risk. This flexibility balances security with user experience by requiring additional verification only when appropriate.
A) is incorrect because increasing storage capacity is unrelated to multi-factor authentication.
C) is incorrect as improving network speed is unrelated to authentication security.
D) is incorrect because compressing files is unrelated to account security.
Question 197:
Which Microsoft 365 service provides enterprise social networking capabilities?
A) Yammer
B) Calculator
C) Paint
D) Notepad
Answer: A
Explanation:
Yammer provides enterprise social networking capabilities within Microsoft 365 creating a social network for organizations where employees can share updates, collaborate across departments, and build communities of practice. Yammer facilitates organizational communication beyond traditional hierarchical structures.
Yammer features news feeds where employees share updates and information, communities organized around topics, projects, or interests, discussions enabling threaded conversations, announcements for broadcasting important information, polls for gathering opinions, and praise for recognizing colleague contributions. The platform promotes transparency and knowledge sharing across organizational boundaries.
Organizations use Yammer to break down departmental silos by enabling cross-functional communication, share best practices across geographically distributed teams, engage leadership with employees through town halls and Q&A sessions, onboard new employees by connecting them with colleagues and resources, and foster innovation through idea sharing and collaboration. Yammer helps create connected, informed organizations.
Integration with other Microsoft 365 services enables embedding Yammer feeds in SharePoint sites, sharing files from OneDrive or SharePoint in conversations, creating Microsoft 365 Groups from Yammer communities, and accessing Yammer through Teams. This integration ensures Yammer fits naturally into existing collaboration workflows.
B) is incorrect because Calculator performs mathematical operations not social networking.
C) is incorrect as Paint is an image editing tool not enterprise social networking.
D) is incorrect because Notepad is a text editor not social networking platform.
Question 198:
What is the purpose of Microsoft 365 eDiscovery?
A) Creating presentations
B) Searching and preserving content for legal investigations
C) Editing photos
D) Playing music
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of Microsoft 365 eDiscovery is searching for, identifying, preserving, and exporting content for legal investigations, regulatory requests, or internal investigations. eDiscovery tools help organizations respond to litigation, meet regulatory obligations, and investigate potential policy violations.
eDiscovery allows authorized users to search across mailboxes, SharePoint sites, OneDrive accounts, Teams conversations, and other Microsoft 365 locations for relevant content. Search queries can target specific keywords, date ranges, senders or recipients, locations, or other criteria. Advanced eDiscovery adds machine learning capabilities for analyzing large datasets, identifying relevant documents, and reducing review volumes.
Content preservation through eDiscovery holds prevents relevant information from being deleted or modified during investigations. Holds can apply to entire mailboxes or specific content matching search criteria. Preserved content remains accessible through eDiscovery searches but is hidden from users preventing tampering or destruction of evidence.
Export capabilities enable organizations to provide content to legal counsel, regulators, or external reviewers. Content can be exported in standard formats suitable for legal review platforms. Advanced eDiscovery provides analytics including near-duplicate detection, email threading, and themes helping legal teams understand case content and organize review efforts efficiently.
A) is incorrect because creating presentations is unrelated to legal content discovery.
C) is incorrect as editing photos is unrelated to legal investigations.
D) is incorrect because playing music is unrelated to eDiscovery.
Question 199:
Which Microsoft 365 feature provides protection for sensitive data in emails?
A) Message encryption
B) Font formatting
C) Spell checking
D) Calendar sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Message encryption provides protection for sensitive data in emails by encrypting message content so only authorized recipients can read it. This protection ensures confidential information remains secure when transmitted through email including to external recipients who may not have secure email systems.
Microsoft 365 message encryption allows users to send encrypted emails to any recipient regardless of their email service. Recipients access encrypted messages through secure web portals where they authenticate before viewing content. Encryption can be applied manually by users selecting encryption options in Outlook or automatically through mail flow rules or sensitivity labels detecting sensitive content.
Organizations configure encryption templates defining protection levels. Templates can prevent recipients from forwarding messages, printing content, or copying text ensuring sensitive information stays within intended audience. Rights management integration ensures protection persists even if recipients save encrypted messages, maintaining control over content after transmission.
Automatic encryption based on data loss prevention policies or sensitivity labels ensures sensitive content receives protection without relying on users to remember encryption requirements. For example, emails containing credit card numbers, social security numbers, or confidential labels can automatically encrypt preventing accidental disclosure of regulated information.
Message encryption helps organizations protect personally identifiable information, financial data, health records, and confidential communications meeting regulatory requirements like HIPAA, GDPR, and financial industry regulations. Compliance features provide audit logs tracking encrypted message transmission and access.
B) is incorrect because font formatting changes text appearance not protects sensitive data.
C) is incorrect as spell checking identifies spelling errors not protects email content.
D) is incorrect because calendar sharing provides schedule access not email protection.
Question 200:
What is the primary purpose of Microsoft Viva Insights?
A) Video editing
B) Providing insights into work patterns and wellbeing
C) File compression
D) Music production
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary purpose of Microsoft Viva Insights is providing insights into work patterns and employee wellbeing based on analysis of Microsoft 365 usage data. Viva Insights helps individuals and organizations understand how time is spent, identify productivity barriers, prevent burnout, and optimize collaboration practices for better outcomes.
Viva Insights analyzes patterns from emails, calendar events, Teams calls and chats, and documents to provide recommendations. Personal insights help individuals protect focus time by blocking calendar periods for concentrated work, reduce meeting time through meeting effectiveness suggestions, maintain work-life balance by highlighting after-hours work patterns, and improve collaboration through network analysis.
Manager insights provide visibility into team work patterns including meeting culture, manager one-on-one time with direct reports, team collaboration networks, and focus time availability. These insights help managers identify teams at risk of burnout, improve meeting practices, ensure adequate coaching time, and address collaboration inefficiencies.
Organizational insights enable leaders to understand company-wide patterns including meeting culture effectiveness, collaboration across organizational boundaries, employee engagement indicators, and work-life balance trends. This data supports decisions about organizational practices, identifies areas needing intervention, and measures effectiveness of workplace initiatives.
Privacy protection is fundamental to Viva Insights. Data is aggregated and de-identified showing patterns at team or organizational levels rather than individual monitoring. Personal insights are visible only to individuals not managers or administrators ensuring privacy while enabling improvement.
A) is incorrect because video editing is unrelated to work pattern analysis.
C) is incorrect as file compression is unrelated to productivity insights.
D) is incorrect because music production is unrelated to workplace analytics.
