AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01 Practice Test 40
Question 390
A CI/CD deployment identity can create SageMaker jobs, but passing an execution role to those jobs fails. What IAM permission and scope should be reviewed?
- Grant the deployment identity permission to delete unrelated KMS keys.
- Set the endpoint's autoscaling metric to the maximum replica count.
- Make all SageMaker training data publicly readable.
- The deployer's iam:PassRole permission limited to the approved SageMaker execution role and service, alongside creation privileges.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Creating a job and authorizing a role to be passed to a service are distinct permission checks.
Incorrect Answers
A:KMS deletion does not authorize an execution role to be passed to SageMaker.
B:Scaling configuration is not an IAM role delegation permission.
C:Public input does not authorize attaching the required job execution role.
Question 391
A data-sharing team uploads trained model artifacts across accounts and finds that the receiving bucket's owner cannot safely manage objects due to uploader ownership. The organization wants uniform bucket ownership. What S3 feature is appropriate?
- Continue relying on uploader-specific object ACLs without bucket-owner access.
- Use CloudWatch metric filters to rename object owners.
- Configure S3 Object Ownership with Bucket owner enforced, then use bucket/IAM policies rather than object ACL grants.
- Require every uploader to set public-read ACLs.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Bucket owner enforced disables ACL-based control and standardizes object ownership for the bucket.
Incorrect Answers
A:That preserves the ownership fragmentation the policy is intended to remove.
B:Log filters cannot change S3 object ownership semantics.
D:Public ACLs increase exposure and do not establish safe uniform owner control.
Question 392
A company stores API credentials for a training pipeline in a CloudFormation template parameter, and the parameter value is visible to reviewers in deployment history. Which design avoids directly embedding the secret value?
- Convert the secret from plaintext into a string with a different variable name.
- Reference a managed secret dynamically at deployment and limit retrieval privileges to the resources that need it.
- Put the secret directly in a template output value so other stacks can reuse it.
- Add the secret to a public stack tag for easier discovery.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Dynamic secret references reduce exposure of secret material in the committed IaC template and review workflow.
Incorrect Answers
A:Renaming a sensitive value does not provide encryption or access control.
C:Outputs can be inspected and would widen disclosure of the credential.
D:Resource tags are not a secret store and can expose values to metadata readers.
Question 393
A third-party training container requires access to an S3 dataset but must not initiate arbitrary outbound network connections. The platform team uses SageMaker managed training. What feature directly isolates container traffic?
- Enable SageMaker network isolation and use the execution role for service-managed input and output transfers.
- Provide a NAT gateway so the container can reach any public endpoint.
- Put the model artifact in an unencrypted public S3 bucket.
- Set a high job-priority value without changing network settings.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Network isolation prevents the algorithm container making external network requests while SageMaker manages approved data transfer.
Incorrect Answers
B:Unrestricted egress conflicts with the requirement to isolate third-party code.
C:Public artifacts are not needed to isolate training-container networking.
D:Scheduling priority does not block outbound connections made by code.
Question 394
A SageMaker Studio user can open the development environment but cannot list the protected training dataset. The team assumes Studio login automatically grants data permissions. What should be checked?
- Raise the notebook's idle shutdown timeout.
- Add more SageMaker notebooks for the same user.
- Change the model version approval status in the registry.
- The Studio user profile/execution role and its effective S3, bucket and encryption-key permissions for the dataset.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Accessing Studio and authorizing underlying S3 or KMS operations are separate privileges.
Incorrect Answers
A:Session lifetime does not provide missing data access rights.
B:Additional UI sessions do not expand an execution role's permissions.
C:Registry approval is separate from the user's authorization to read S3 data.
Question 395
A security team creates an interface VPC endpoint to access a private AWS API from SageMaker jobs. The endpoint exists, but TCP connections time out from job subnets. What should be tested before changing IAM?
- Increase the training max runtime to several days.
- Turn off certificate verification on all AWS SDK clients.
- Check that the endpoint ENI security group permits inbound TLS from the job's security group and that private DNS/routing resolve to it.
- Grant every job permission to modify all S3 buckets.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Interface endpoints have network interfaces and security groups; an IAM allow does not make an unreachable ENI reachable.
Incorrect Answers
A:Longer execution does not make TCP 443 reachable when the security group denies it.
B:Skipping TLS checks is insecure and cannot fix a network-level connection timeout.
D:Broader bucket permissions do not open a blocked HTTPS network path to the endpoint ENI.
Question 396
A company signs approved container artifacts and wants to reject a model-serving image if its digest differs from the reviewed build, even though the registry tag still has the correct name. What should the deployment gate verify?
- Trust the model package's description field instead of checking the image.
- Compare the image's immutable digest and supply-chain attestation or signature against the approved release record.
- Accept any image that uses the same repository name and latest tag.
- Use endpoint invocation counts as evidence of image provenance.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A digest and verified provenance establish the image bytes under review, unlike a mutable tag label.
Incorrect Answers
A:Descriptive metadata cannot substitute for artifact integrity validation.
C:Repository and tag text cannot guarantee identical contents after a repush.
D:Serving metrics do not attest to a container's build identity.
Question 397
An ML feature pipeline writes outputs into a shared S3 prefix. A new role uses s3:* on the entire account even though it only reads an input path and writes one output path. What least-privilege change fits?
- Grant only required bucket-list and object read/write actions on explicit input and output resources, with supporting KMS permissions where necessary.
- Retain s3:* on every bucket so future pipelines never fail.
- Make both data prefixes public-write to remove the need for a role.
- Give the role global IAM user creation instead of S3 permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Distinct S3 action/resource scopes restrict the role to the paths and operations its workflow needs.
Incorrect Answers
B:Broad permission increases blast radius without meeting least privilege.
C:Public writes invite unauthorized modifications and do not solve controlled role access.
D:Identity administration permissions do not authorize the needed object reads and writes.
Question 398
A compliance policy requires an AWS machine learning service in Account B to read an SSE-KMS encrypted model artifact from Account A. Account B's role has kms:Decrypt, but the copy fails. What additional cross-account consideration is critical?
- Change the model's training objective to maximize validation AUC.
- Disable S3 server-side encryption on every model bucket.
- Add a second endpoint traffic variant in Account B.
- The key policy in Account A must permit appropriate cross-account key use, in addition to the caller's IAM allowance and S3 permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:For cross-account KMS usage, key resource-policy authorization is required; a foreign identity allow alone does not suffice.
Incorrect Answers
A:Metric configuration does not grant cryptographic key access across accounts.
B:Removing encryption is neither necessary nor compliant with the policy.
C:Serving variants do not change the KMS key policy or decrypt authorization.
Question 399
An application team regularly copies customer email addresses into SageMaker endpoint logs for debugging. Auditors require troubleshooting identifiers but forbid storing raw PII in operational logs. What redesign meets both goals?
- Send full customer payloads into publicly readable log groups to simplify support.
- Disable all logging permanently, including security and error events.
- Emit stable nonreversible correlation IDs and sanitized operational fields, with protected opt-in access for exceptional traces.
- Retain the raw email and hide it only in the dashboard visualization.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Redacted structured logs retain fault-correlation value without collecting unnecessary sensitive customer content.
Incorrect Answers
A:Broad exposure violates confidentiality and is not necessary for troubleshooting.
B:Removing all traces impedes incident response and fails required operational evidence obligations.
D:Masking a screen does not remove PII from the underlying log events.
Question 400
A regulated ML team must keep an identified released model artifact version in S3 for seven years. During that period no AWS account principal, including the root user, may permanently delete or alter that protected version; creating newer versions under the same key is acceptable. Which retention control meets this requirement?
- Enable S3 Versioning without applying any Object Lock retention rule to the released version.
- Apply a seven-year S3 Object Lock compliance-mode retention period to the specific model artifact version in a versioning-enabled bucket.
- Rely only on an S3 bucket policy denying DeleteObjectVersion that an authorized administrator can remove during the seven years.
- Use S3 Object Lock governance mode while authorizing the storage administrators to bypass governance retention at any time.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Object Lock compliance mode enforces the retention on that object version and disallows deleting or changing its retention during the period, including for root; newer versions can still be uploaded.
Incorrect Answers
A:Versioning retains object versions but does not by itself prevent an authorized principal from permanently deleting a version before seven years.
C:An editable deny policy can be changed by an appropriately privileged administrator and is not equivalent to non-bypassable compliance-mode Object Lock retention.
D:Governance mode allows properly authorized principals to bypass retention, so granting bypass privileges fails the requirement that no account principal can override the protection.