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Exam Code: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
Exam Name: AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01
Certification Provider: Amazon
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AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate MLA-C01 Practice Test 4

Question 30

A financial institution uses SageMaker Clarify with a deployed lending model. Auditors need to compare the contributions of income and credit history to individual loan scores. Which Clarify output fits?

  1. Endpoint request count and p95 model latency for the scoring period.
  2. A group-level fairness report comparing approval rates, without individual feature contributions.
  3. SHAP-based feature attribution values for the scored records, interpreted relative to a documented baseline.
  4. A single global feature-importance ranking averaged across the entire evaluation dataset.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SHAP attributions quantify contributions of model inputs to predictions relative to a reference baseline, matching the explanation need.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Serving throughput and latency describe operational performance, not the variables behind a particular score.

B:

Group fairness metrics can expose disparities but do not explain an individual record’s predicted score.

D:

Global importance summarizes behavior across many records; it does not identify contributions for the specific loans under review.

Question 31

A team must select a SageMaker real-time endpoint instance type to meet p95 latency at the lowest feasible cost. They have a packaged model and representative traffic, but no trustworthy performance measurements across instance families. Which capability best addresses the comparison?

  1. SageMaker Inference Recommender load-testing candidate hosting configurations.
  2. SageMaker Model Registry approval status changes without performance testing.
  3. AWS Glue Data Catalog crawlers run against the model artifact path.
  4. CloudTrail IAM events counted as a substitute for inference latency benchmarks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inference Recommender evaluates model hosting options under load and supports price-performance instance selection with measured results.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Registry states govern authorization of a model version, not its request latency or relative serving costs.

C:

Glue crawlers discover data metadata and do not benchmark model-serving instances for p95 latency.

D:

CloudTrail records API activity; it cannot replace representative inference load tests across serving configurations.

Question 32

A large document-processing endpoint runs using SageMaker Asynchronous Inference and receives no requests on weekends. The team wants to eliminate provisioned inference-instance spend during those idle hours and accepts startup delay for the first queued job. Which scaling policy is compatible?

  1. Use a fixed four-instance minimum at all times.
  2. Configure asynchronous endpoint auto scaling with minimum capacity zero and a suitable backlog scale-up policy.
  3. Convert the scheduled ingestion process into a permanent real-time endpoint of the same size.
  4. Disable all request queueing so new requests are discarded while instances are removed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Asynchronous endpoint autoscaling supports scaling down to zero; requests wait in the queue and scale-up policy brings capacity back.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A fixed positive minimum keeps instances provisioned during idle time and conflicts with the stated goal.

C:

A persistent real-time endpoint does not directly offer the same documented asynchronous scale-to-zero queue behavior.

D:

Discarding requests changes availability semantics and is not necessary to save idle instance cost with the async model.

Question 33

A team observes an endpoint with many small CPU-light predictions but a growing request backlog. It proposes scaling based only on total GPU memory even though the endpoint uses CPU instances. What operational metric would better track request pressure for target scaling?

  1. Use endpoint CPU utilization alone and assume low utilization proves that per-instance request pressure is low.
  2. Track total endpoint invocations without relating them to active replica count or request latency.
  3. SageMaker endpoint invocations per instance, evaluated alongside latency and capacity metrics.
  4. Use model latency from last month's validation tests without production traffic measurements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Invocations per instance is a serving-workload metric that aligns scaling with request pressure; latency and utilization help validate the target.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CPU-light inference can still be request-concurrency limited, so utilization alone does not quantify requests per replica.

B:

An unnormalized total cannot establish whether individual serving instances need more capacity under the new load.

D:

A historical benchmark cannot determine current requests per instance or reveal the backlog now accumulating.

Question 34

A regulated ML training workload requires that untrusted code inside a SageMaker training container make no outbound network requests, but SageMaker must still download its approved S3 training data. Which configuration achieves this distinction?

  1. Set EnableNetworkIsolation to True and allow the SageMaker service to handle authorized S3 data transfers with its execution role.
  2. Give the training container unrestricted VPC internet egress so its code can contact any endpoint.
  3. Expose the container on a public IP address and rely only on obscuring its image tag.
  4. Replace the SageMaker execution role with public-read access on all S3 data buckets.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network isolation blocks container network access while SageMaker performs required S3 transfers outside the isolated container under its role.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Unrestricted egress directly contradicts the rule against outbound network calls from training code.

C:

A public IP and obscure tag do not implement controlled container network isolation or prevent outbound access.

D:

Making private data publicly readable would violate the data-protection requirement and is not needed by the service role.

Question 35

A production training job must read only s3://approved-training-bucket/datasets/ and write model artifacts to a separate approved output prefix. The current SageMaker execution role has wildcard S3 access. What should be tightened?

  1. Allow s3:* on every account bucket to avoid future failures.
  2. Remove all permissions from the role and make the input dataset public.
  3. Scope the execution role policy to the necessary S3 actions and the precise input/output bucket resources.
  4. Grant the training role permissions to change unrelated organization account policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A narrowly scoped execution role can grant only required operations on the approved data and artifact prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Account-wide S3 permissions are broader than the business need and increase exposure if job credentials are misused.

B:

Making the dataset public is a poor substitute for authenticated SageMaker service access.

D:

Organization-policy administration is unrelated to data ingestion and model artifact writes and exceeds least privilege.

Question 36

A financial company creates a SageMaker Feature Store feature group containing sensitive income and account-balance data. Policy requires a customer-managed encryption key, with controlled key access and auditing. Which at-rest protection meets this?

  1. Omit encryption settings because feature groups never persist data.
  2. Specify a customer-managed AWS KMS key for the feature group and grant its necessary key-use permissions to the approved role.
  3. Place a string reading "encrypted" in the feature-group description.
  4. Only enable TLS for the inference client and leave the stored feature values unprotected at rest.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Feature Store supports AWS KMS customer-managed keys for encryption at rest; permission to use the key must be authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Feature groups store data, so ignoring storage protection does not meet the at-rest key management requirement.

C:

A description label is metadata and does not encrypt the underlying stored feature records.

D:

TLS protects data in transit but does not fulfill a requirement for controlled at-rest encryption keys.

Question 37

A data scientist repeatedly selects five columns from a 900-column clickstream dataset in S3 using Athena. Monthly scanned bytes are excessive. Which stored representation most directly reduces reads of unneeded columns?

  1. Convert the dataset to compressed Parquet and keep an appropriate schema.
  2. Convert every object to uncompressed JSON Lines.
  3. Keep all fields in plain text CSV with no compression.
  4. Combine all records into a single very large XML file.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Parquet is columnar, so Athena can skip columns outside the projection and read fewer bytes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Row-oriented JSON repeats field names and often reads irrelevant attributes for this projection.

C:

CSV still requires reading and parsing row data containing unused fields.

D:

XML is row-oriented and introduces parse overhead rather than column projection.

Question 38

An Athena training query filters events to a single day but the table stores five years of unpartitioned events. What data-layout change makes the filter effective before scanning objects?

  1. Add another computed date column without changing the S3 layout.
  2. Increase the Athena workgroup data-scan quota without changing the S3 table layout.
  3. Split the same unpartitioned data into more small Parquet files, keeping all dates under one root location.
  4. Partition objects by event date and query using the registered partition column.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Date partition pruning lets Athena avoid reading unrelated day directories when predicates match the key.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A column alone does not make Athena skip S3 objects in an unpartitioned table.

B:

A larger scan allowance does not let the query planner skip unrelated day files without partition metadata.

C:

More unpartitioned files add overhead and still offer no date partition predicate for pruning.

Question 39

A pipeline produces ten million 2 KB Parquet objects daily; Spark job initialization and S3 listing dominate training preparation. Which remediation is most effective?

  1. Convert each 2 KB object into an even smaller gzipped text file.
  2. Run a crawler before every file is read in training.
  3. Compact records into appropriately sized Parquet files while retaining useful partitions.
  4. Create separate folders for every individual event identifier.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Larger files reduce per-object listing and open costs without losing columnar pruning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compression does not fix the high number of object opens and may impair column operations.

B:

Repeated schema discovery increases work while leaving the tiny-file layout intact.

D:

More tiny partitions increase object and metadata overhead instead of reducing it.

Question 40

A Kinesis Data Stream ingests IoT telemetry but almost all producers choose the fixed partition key device. One shard is throttled while other shards sit idle. What must change first?

  1. Replace record-level keys with the same static string in uppercase.
  2. Choose a sufficiently distributed partition-key strategy that preserves any required per-device ordering.
  3. Increase the stream retention window from one day to seven.
  4. Increase the S3 bucket's maximum object size.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Shard assignment hashes the partition key; better key cardinality reduces a hot shard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Another single shared key still hashes all messages into one hot partition.

C:

Retention affects how long records remain accessible, not the incoming key's shard placement.

D:

S3 object limits do not determine Kinesis shard write distribution.

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